SSC CPO Sub Inspector General Awareness Solved Question Paper

SSC CPO Sub Inspector General Awareness Solved Question Paper

SSC CPO Sub Inspector General Awareness2009 Question Paper 

1. ‘India Today’ is—
(A) A staggering mass of problems
(B) Former British India minus Pakistan and Bangladesh
(C) A News magazine mainly devoted to current affairs
(D) The Union of India, a member of United Nations
Ans : (C)


2. The book ‘It was Five Past Midnight’ is on—
(A) Bhuj Earthquake
(B) Orissa Floods
(C) Andhra Cyclone
(D) Bhopal Gas Tragedy
Ans : (D)


3. Teen Bigha Corridor links—
(A) India and Pakistan
(B) India and China
(C) Bangladesh and Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh and India
Ans : (D)


4. What is the field in which outstanding work may be recognized with the award of Pulitzer Prize ?
(A) Science and Technology
(B) Literature and Journalism
(C) International Understanding
(D) Environmental Studies
Ans : (B)


5. Vijay Stambha at Chittor was built by—
(A) Maharana Pratap
(B) Rana Sangram Singh
(C) Rana Kumbha
(D) Rana Ratan Singh
Ans : (C)


6. The device used to change the speed of an electric fan is—
(A) Amplifier
(B) Regulator
(C) Switch
(D) Rectifier
Ans : (B)


7. Namdhapa National Park is in—
(A) Mizoram
(B) Manipur
(C) Tripura
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans : (D)


8. Which scripture was called his ‘mother’ by Gandhiji ?
(A) Ramayana
(B) The New Testament
(C) Bhagwat Gita
(D) The Holy Quran
Ans : (C)


9. On which of the following rivers is the Tehri Hydropower Complex located ?
(A) Alaknanda
(B) Mandakini
(C) Dhauli Ganga
(D) Bhagirathi
Ans : (D)


10. Nobel Prize winning Indian Amartya Sen is known for his work in which area ?
(A) Physics
(B) Environmental Protection
(C) Chemistry
(D) Economics
Ans : (D)


11. Who has been crowned Miss Universe, 2008 ?
(A) Miss Japan
(B) Miss Venezuela
(C) Miss Philippines
(D) Miss Malaysia
Ans : (B)


12. Wholesale price based inflation rate in India reached its highest level in 13 years on 27th July, 2008. It was—
(A) 11•75 per cent
(B) 11•85 per cent
(C) 12•00 per cent
(D) 12•05 per cent
Ans : (D)


13. The French Open, 2009 Men’s Singles was won by—
(A) Roger Federer
(B) Rafael Nadal
(C) Bob Bryan
(D) Katarina Srebotnik
Ans : (A)


14. The venue of the Energy Summit, 2008 was—
(A) Jeddah
(B) Tehran
(C) Riyadh
(D) Tripoli
Ans : (A)


15. CTBT stands for—
(A) Continued Test Ban Treaty
(B) Continued Test Based Treatments
(C) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
(D) Commercial Test Based Tariff
Ans : (C)


16. Asia Cup, 2008 final was played between—
(A) India and Sri Lanka
(B) Pakistan and India
(C) Sri Lanka and Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh and India
Ans : (A)


17. For which one of the following, M. S. Dhoni was chosen for the year 2007 ?
(A) Arjun Award
(B) Dronacharya Award
(C) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)


18. Full form of MCA is—
(A) Ministry of Company Affairs
(B) Master of Computer Application
(C) Member Chartered Accountant
(D) Master of Commerce and Arts
Ans : (B)


19. China has hosted the—
(A) XXIX Olympic Games
(B) XXVIII Olympic Games
(C) XXVII Olympic Games
(D) XXX Olympic Games
Ans : (A)


20. Rashtrapati Bhawan was designed by—
(A) Edward Stone
(B) Le Corbusier
(C) Edwin Lutyens
(D) Tarun Dutt
Ans : (C)


21. ‘The Quit India Movement’ was launched in 1942 in the month of—
(A) January
(B) March
(C) August
(D) December
Ans : (C)


22. Match the following—
Column-I
(A) Keshab Sen
(b) Dayanand Saraswati
(c) Atmaram Pandurang
(d) Syed Ahmad Khan
Column-II


1. Prarthana Samaj
2. Brahmo Samaj
3. Aligarh Movement
4. Arya Samaj
(A) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 3 2 4 1
Ans : (C)


23. Who was the first English President of the Indian National Congress ?
(A) George Yule
(B) William Wedderburn
(C) A. O. Hume
(D) Henry Cotton
Ans : (A)


24. Which one of the following personalities is known as ‘Grand Old Man of India’ ?
(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Motilal Nehru
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai
Ans : (B)


25. Who wrote Akbarnama ?
(A) Akbar
(B) Birbal
(C) Abul Fazal
(D) Bhagavan Das
Ans : (C)

26. The pledge for ‘Poorna Swaraj’ was taken at the Congress Session of—
(A) Calcutta
(B) Lahore
(C) Allahabad
(D) Madras
Ans : (B)


27. When was the Panchayati Raj System introduced in India ?
(A) 1950 A.D.
(B) 1945 A.D.
(C) 1959 A.D.
(D) 1962 A.D.
Ans : (C)


28. Who held the office of the Vice-President of India for two consecutive terms ?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Mr. R. Venkataraman
(C) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
(D) Mr. V. V. Giri
Ans : (A)


29. Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution inserted the two words—‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ in the Preamble ?
(A) 28th
(B) 40th
(C) 42nd
(D) 52nd
Ans : (C)


30. When there is a vacancy in the office of the President and the Vice President at the same time, the office is held temporarily by—
(A) A person nominated by both the Houses of Parliament
(B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) The Chief Justice of India
Ans : (D)


31. The Constitution of India came into force on—
(A) 26 January, 1950
(B) 26 January, 1952
(C) 15 August, 1948
(D) 26 November, 1949
Ans : (A)


32. Who was the first Woman Governor of a State in free India from out of the following ?
(A) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
(B) Mrs. Sucheta Kriplani
(C) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(D) Mrs. Vijay Laxmi Pandit
Ans : (A)


33. The Parliamentary Committee which scrutinises the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is—
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Select Committee
(C) Public Accounts Committee
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)


34. Fog is an example of—
(A) Gas dispersed in gas
(B) Liquid dispersed in gas
(C) Solid dispersed in gas
(D) Solid dispersed in liquid
Ans : (B)


35. Which from the following is a landlocked sea ?
(A) Timor Sea
(B) Arafura Sea
(C) Greenland Sea
(D) Aral Sea
Ans : (D)


36. Match the following—
Sea Ports
(A) Bhatkal
(b) Alleppey
(c) Kakinada
(d) Tuticorin
States
1. Kerala
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Karnataka
4. Andhra Pradesh
(A) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans : (C)


37. Which one of the following represent the lines joining the places of equal rainfall ?
(A) Isohypses
(B) Isohalines
(C) Isobars
(D) Isohyets
Ans : (D)


38. Equator represents—
(A) Line joining North and South poles
(B) Imaginary line passing round the Earth midway between North & South poles
(C) A belt (ring) around the planet Saturn
(D) Axis of rotation of Earth
Ans : (B)


39. Global warming is expected to result in—
(A) Increase in level of sea
(B) Change in crop pattern
(C) Change in coast line
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
40. Earth Summit (Save Earth) was sponsored by—
(A) UNESCO
(B) UNCED
(C) WHO
(D) UNICEF
Ans : (B)


41. If two commodities are complements, then their cross-price elasticity is—
(A) Zero
(B) Positive
(C) Negative
(D) Imaginary number
Ans : (C)
42. Opportunity cost of production of a commodity is—
(A) The cost that the firm could have incurred when a different technique was adopted
(B) The cost that the firm could have incurred under a different method of production
(C) The actual cost incurred
(D) The next best alternative output sacrificed
Ans : (D)
43. Surplus earned by a factor other than land in the short period is referred to as—
(A) Economic rent
(B) Net rent
(C) Quasi-rent
(D) Super-normal rent
Ans : (C)


44. Who is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission ?
(A) Minister for Planning & Development
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Minister for Rural & Community Development
Ans : (C)


45. Which from the following is not true when the interest rate in the economy goes up ?
(A) Savings increases
(B) Lending decreases
(C) Cost of production increases
(D) Return on capital increases
Ans : (D)


46. Which one of the following is not a method of measurement of National Income ?
(A) Value Added Method
(B) Income Method
(C) Investment Method
(D) Expenditure Method
Ans : (C)


47. Labour Intensive Technique would get chosen in a—
(A) Labour Surplus Economy
(B) Capital Surplus Economy
(C) Developed Economy
(D) Developing Economy
Ans : (A)


48. Which one of the following would not constitute an economic activity ?
(A) A teacher teaching students in his class
(B) A teacher teaching students under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(C) A teacher teaching his own daughter at home
(D) A teacher providing consultancy services from his residence
Ans : (C)


49. The Finance Commission—
(A) Draws up Five Year Plans
(B) Formulates Monetary Policy
(C) Recommends pay revision of Central Government Employees
(D) Adjudicates on the sharing of resources between Centre and the States
Ans : (D)

SSC Sub Inspector General Awareness Solved Paper


50. Net National Product of a country is—
(A) GDP minus depreciation allowances
(B) GDP plus net income from abroad
(C) GNP minus net income from abroad
(D) GNP minus depreciation allowances
Ans : (D)


51. Jaundice is caused due to the infection of—
(A) Brain
(B) Liver
(C) Kidney
(D) Spleen
Ans : (B)


52. The average heart beat rate per minute in a normal person is—
(A) 82
(B) 92
(C) 72
(D) 98
Ans : (C)


53. EEG records the activity of—
(A) Heart
(B) Lungs
(C) Brain
(D) Muscles
Ans : (C)


54. The colour of cow’s milk is slight yellow due to the presence of—
(A) Xanthophyll
(B) Riboflavin
(C) Ribulose
(D) Carotene
Ans : (D)


55. Which one of these is a communicat disease ?
(A) Diabetes
(B) Diphtheria
(C) Arthritis
(D) Cancer
Ans : (B)


56. The concertration of which of following decreases in anaemia ?
(A) Haemoglobin
(B) Collagen
(C) Hyoglobin
(D) Myosin
Ans : (A)


57. Which of the following diseases usually spreads through air ?
(A) Plague
(B) Typhoid
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Cholera
Ans : (A)


58. Cereals are a rich source of—
(A) Starch
(B) Glucose
(C) Fructose
(D) Maltose
Ans : (A)


59. Aspirin is common name of—
(A) Salicylic Acid
(B) Salicylate
(C) Methyl Salicylate
(D) Acetyl Salicylic Acid
Ans : (D)


60. Small Pox is caused by—
(A) Rubeola Virus
(B) Variola Virus
(C) Varicella
(D) Myxovirus
Ans : (B)


61. Carbon monoxide is an inflammable gas. Which one of the following is also inflammable ?
(A) Helium
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) Hydrogen
Ans : (D)


62. Aerobic respiration process requires—
(A) Heat
(B) Water
(C) Oxygen
(D) Sunlight
Ans : (C)


63. Which one of the following metals does not react with water to produce Hydrogen ?
(A) Potassium
(B) Cadmium
(C) Sodium
(D) Lithium
Ans : (B)


64. Ozone consists of—
(A) Oxygen only
(B) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen and Carbon
(D) Oxygen and Carbon
Ans : (A)


65. Which of the following liquids has the least density ?
(A) Fresh water
(B) Salt water
(C) Petrol
(D) Mercury
Ans : (C)


66. Which of the following principle is used to produce ‘low-temperatures’ ?
(A) Super conductivity
(B) Joule-Kelvin effect
(C) Thermo-electric effect
(D) Adiabatic demagnetization
Ans : (D)


67. A photo-electric cell converts—
(A) Mechanical energy to electric energy
(B) Heat energy to mechanical energy
(C) Light energy to chemical energy
(D) Light energy to electrical energy
Ans : (D)


68. Two stones of different masses are dropped simultaneously from the top of a building—
(A) Smaller stone reaches the ground earlier
(B) Larger stone reaches the ground earlier
(C) Both the stones reach the ground at the same time
(D) Depends on the composition of the stone
Ans : (C)


69. Pulsars are—
(A) Stars moving towards the Earth
(B) Stars moving away from Earth
(C) Rapidly spinning stars
(D) High temperature stars
Ans : (C)


70. Biggest planet of solar system is—
(A) Earth
(B) Mars
(C) Saturn
(D) Jupiter
Ans : (D)


71. The ‘National School of Drama’ is situated in which of the following cities ?
(A) Mumbai
(B) New Delhi
(C) Bhopal
(D) Kolkata
Ans : (B)


72. When was our National Anthem first sung and where ?
(A) 24th January, 1950 in Allahabad
(B) 24th January, 1950 in Delhi
(C) 26th December, 1942 in Calcutta
(D) 27th December, 1911 in Calcutta
Ans : (D)


73. The ozone hole that has been detected lies in the atmosphere above—
(A) Arctic Ocean
(B) Antarctica
(C) India
(D) Alaska
Ans : (B)


74. Brain drain—
(A) Is a disease
(B) Refers to dropouts from educational and technical institutions
(C) Is fruitless expenditure of scientific and industrial research
(D) Refers to emigration of skilled persons
Ans : (D)


75. How many spokes are there in the Dharma Chakra of the National Flag ?
(A) 22
(B) 24
(C) 18
(D) 14
Ans : (B)

GPAT 2011 Solved Question Paper

GPAT 2011 Solved Question Paper

Download GPAT 2011 question paper with solution

Q.1 Quinoline alkaloids are biosynthesized via which one of the following pathways?
(A) Shikimic acid - tyrosine (B) Shikimic acid - tryptophan
(C) Shikimic acid - cathinone (D) Shikimic acid - phenylalanine
Ans: B


Q.2 Khellin is an active constituent of which one of the following plants?
(A) Prunus serona (B) Tribulus terrestis
(C) Ammi visnaga (D) Vanilla planifolia
Ans: C


Q.3 Which one of the following compounds is useful for the stimulation of cell
division and release of lateral bud dormancy?
(A) Zeatin (B) 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid
(C) Indoleacetic acid (D) Picloram
Ans: A


Q.4 A powdered drug has the following microscopic characters:
Anther cells, arenchyma, pollen grains, phloem fibers, volatile oil cells and
stone cells. The powder is obtained from which of the followings?
(A) Clove bud powder (B) Clove bud powder with stalk
(C) Mother Clove (D) None of the above
Ans: B


Q.5 Which of the following ergot alkaloids is water soluble and shows blue
fluorescence?
(A) Ergosine (B) Ergotamine (C) Ergocristine (D) Ergometrine
Ans: D


Q.6 Goldbeater's skin test is used to detect the presence of which one of the
following classes of compounds?
(A) Tannins (B) Steroids (C) Glycerides (D) Resins
Ans: A


Q.7 Phenylethylisoquinoline is the precursor of which of the following alkaloids?
(A) Colchicine (B) Papaverine (C) Emetine (D) Cephaline
Ans: A


Q.8 Arrange the following fatty acids in decreasing order of their unsaturation
(highest to lowest):
[P] Stearic [Q] Oleic acid [R] Linolenic acid [S] Linoleic acid


(A) P>Q>R>S (B) S>R>P>Q (C) R>S>Q>P (D) Q>P>R>S
Ans: C


Q.9 Each Of the following options lists a phytoconstituent, its phytochemical
grouping, pharmacological activity and corresponding semisynthetic analogue.
Find a MISMATCHING option.
(A) Podophyllotoxin, lignan, anticancer, etoposide
(B) Sennoside, anthraquinone, laxative, sinigrin
(C) Atropine, alkaloid, anticholinergic, homatropine
(D) THC. terpenophenolic, psychoactive, nabilone
Ans: B


Q.10 Which of the following mechanisms is NOT related to platelet aggregation
inhibitory action?
(A) ADP receptor antagonism
(B) Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonism
(C) Phosphodiesterase inhibition
(D) Prostacvclin inhibition
Ans: C


Q.11 Which of the following species is being inactivated by the enzyme Dipeptidyl
peptidase-4?
(A) Oxytocin (B) Vasopressin (C) Incretin (D) Glucagon
Ans: D


Q.12 Two genetic types of Cannabis i.e. drug type and Hemp type are cultivated.
[P] Drug type cannabis is rich in (-)A-trans-tetrahydrocannabinol .
[Q] Hemp type cannabis is rich in cannabidiol
[R] Drug type cannabis is rich in cannabidiol -
[S] Hemp type cannabis contains elongated bast fibres
Which one of the given statements is correct?
(A) P is true, Q is true, R is true, S is true
(B) P is true, Q is false, R is false, S is true
(C) P is true, Q is true, R is false, S is true
(D) P is false, Q is false, R is true, S is false


Q.13 Inhibition/induction of which of the following Cytochrome P450enzyme system is
most likely to be involved in important drug-druginteractions?
(A) CYP3A4 (B) CYP2D6 (C) CYP2C9 (D) CYP1A2
Ans: A


Q.14 Choose the correct statement about the given four diseases?
[P] Cardiomyopathy [Q] Rheumatoid arthritis
[R] Myasthenia gravis [S] Ulcerative colitis
(A) Q & S are autoimmune disorders
(B) P & Q are autoimmune disorders
(C) P & R are not autoimmune disorders
(D) R & S are not autoimmune disorders
Ans: A


Q.15 Most of the emergency contraceptives have one of the following active
ingredients?
(A) Estradiol (B) Norethindron
(C) Misoprostol (D) Levonorgesterel
Ans: D




Q.16 Antiretroviral Raltegravir is unique, because of which of its following
actions?
(A) Integrase inhibition (B) CCR5 Co-receptor antagonism
(C) Fusion inhibition (D) Reverse transcriptase inhibition
Ans: A


Q.17 Which one of the followings is NOT an example of G-protein coupled receptor?
(A) Muscarinic cholinergic receptor (B) Alpha adrenoceptor
(C) Nicotinic cholinergic receptor (D) Beta adrenoceptor
Ans: C


Q.18 Which of the following statements is FALSE for artemisinin?
(A) It is a sesquiterpene lactone endoperoxide
(B) It is a drug of choice in prophylaxis of malaria
(C) It does not cure relapsing malaria
(D) It is useful in treatment of cerebral falciparum malaria
Ans: B


Q.19 Which of the following antibiotics produces concentration dependent
bactericidal action and also possesses post-antibiotic effect?
(A)Ceftazidime (B) Azithromycin (C) Amikacin (D) Piperacillin
Ans: C


Q.20 What is chemotaxis?
(A) Toxicity of chemicals
(B) Taxonomy of chemicals
(C) Inhibition of Inflammation
(D) Movement of leucocytes in inflammation
Ans: D


Q.21 Which of the followings used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is NOT a
biologic response modifier?
(A) Anakinra (B) Leflunomide (C) Etanercept (D) Infliximab
Ans: B


Q.22 Which of the followings is a noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme reverse
transcriptase in HIV?
(A) Lamivudine (B) Nevirapine (C) Abacavir (D) Tenofovir
Ans: B


Q.23 Which one of the followings is a beta lactamase inhibitor?
(A) Penicillanic acid (B) Embonic acid
(C) Cephalosporanic acid (D) Clavulanic acid
Ans: D


Q.24 Neural tube defects may occur by which one of the following anti-seizure drugs?
(A) Ethosuximide (B) Vigabatrin (C) Valproic acid (D) Primidone
Ans: C


Q.25 Which one of the following drying methods is commonly used in pharma industry
for drying of soft shell capsules?
(A) Truck drying (B) Fluid bed drying
(C) Vacuum drying (D) Microwave drying
Ans: C


Q.26 If C is the concentration of dissolved drug and Cs is the saturation
concentration. In which case the sink conditions are said to be maintained?
(A) C < 20% of Cs (B) C > 20% of Cs
(C) C < 10% of Cs (D) C >10% of Cs
Ans: C


Q.27 All of the followings are indications for use of ACE inhibitors EXCEPT for one.
Identify that.
(A) Hypertension (B) Myocardial infarction
(C) Left ventricular dysfunction (D) Pheochromocytoma
Ans: D


Q.28 Which water is used for hand washing in a change room of pharmaceutical
manufacturing plant?
(A) Potable water (B) Purified water
(C) Disinfectant water (D) Soap water
Ans: A


Q.29 hich one of the followings does NOT afford a macromolecular inclusion compound?
(A) Zeolites (B) Dextrins (C) Silica gels (D) Cyclodextrins
Ans: C


Q.30 Which condition does not apply as per Indian law while conducting single dose
bioavailability study of an immediate release product?
(A)Sampling period should be atleast three t1/2 ei
(B)Sampling should represent pre-exposure, peak exposure and post-exposure phases
(C)There should be atleast four sampling points during elimination phase
(D)Sampling should be continued till measured AUC is atleast equal to 80% of AUC
Ans: C


Q.31 Which of the following isothem are produced when the heat of condensation of
successive layers is more than the heat of adsorption of first layer?
(A) Type III and IV
(B) Type II and V
(C) Type I and III
(D) Type III and V
Ans: D


Q.32 The minimal effective flow rate of air in Luminar Flow hood should be not less
than how many cubic feet per minute?
(A) 10 (B) 50 (C) 100 (D) 1000
Ans: C


Q.33 Which of the following pumps is used in handling of corrosive liquids?
(A) Turbine pump (B) Volute Pump (C) Air binding pump (D) Baltic pump
Ans: D


Q.34 Convert 90% v/v alcohol to Proof strength. Choose the correct answer.
(A) 57.77° under proof (B) 57.77° over proof
(C) 47.41° over proof (D) 47.41° under proof
Ans: B


Q.35 What is the Heat of vaporization of water at 100:
(A) 2790 cal/ mole (B) 7290 cal / mole
(C) 7920 cal/mole (D) 9720 cal/mole
Ans: D


Q.36 Which of the followings act as a non-ionic emulsifying agent?
(A) Triethanolamine oleate
(B) Polyoxyethylene sorbitan monooleate
(C) N-Cetyl-N-ethylmorpholinium ethosulfate
(D) Dioctyl sulphosuccinate
Ans: B


Q.37 Which of the following Schedules include shelf life of drugs?
(A) Schedule F (B) Schedule M (C) Schedule G (D) Schedule P
Ans: D


Q.38 By addition of which of the followings the shells of soft gelatin capsules may
be made elastic?
(A) Polyethylene glycol (B) Sorbitol
(C) Propylene glycol (D) Dibutyl phthalate
Ans: B


Q.39 Department of Transport Test (DOT) is performed for which of the followings?
(A) Strip packing (B) Aerosols
(C) Injection packing (D) Glass containers
Ans: B


Q.40 How many mL of 50% (w/v) dextrose solution and how many mL of 5% (w/v) dextrose
solution are required to prepare 4500 mL of a 10% (w/v) solution?
(A) 500 mL of 50% and 4000 mL of 5%
(B) 1000 mL of 50% and 3500 mL of 5%
(C) 4000 mL of 50% and 500 mL of 5%
(D) 1500 mL of 50% and 3000 mL of 5%
Ans: A


Q.41 P-Glycoprotein pump is responsible for which one of the followings?
(A) Transporting the drugs from the enterocytes into the gut lumen
(B) Transporting the drugs from gut lumen into enterocytes
(C) Transporting the drugs from oral mucosa into blood capillaries
(D) Transporting the drugs from Peyer's patches into the gut lumen.
Ans: A


Q.42 The first stage of wetting on addition of a granulating agent to the powders is
characterized by which one of the followings?
(A) Capillary state (B) Pendular state
(C) Funicular state (D) Droplet state
Ans: A


Q.43 The degree of flocculation of a suspension is 1.5 and the sedimentation volume
is 0.75. What will be the ultimate volume of deflocculated suspension?
(A) 2.0 (B) 1.5 (C) 0.75 (D) 0.5
Ans:


Q.44 A drug is administered to a 65 Kg patient as 500 mg tablets every 4 hours.
Half- life of the drug is 3 h, volume of distribution is 2 liter/Kg and oral
bioavailability of the drug is 0.85. Calculate the steady state concentration
of the drug?
(A) 5.05mcg/ml (B) 4.50 mcg/ml (C) 3.53 mcg/ml (D) 3.00 mcg/ml
Ans: D


Q.45 Statement [X] : Hofmeister series grades coagulating power of electrolytes
as per their ionic size.
Statement [Y] : The relative coagulating power is given by:
[P] Al+++ > Ba++ [Q] Li- > F- [R] NH4+ > Na+
Choose the correct statement :
(A) Statement X is true but P, Q and R are false in Statement Y
(B) Statement X is false and P, Q and R are false in Statement Y
(C) Statement X is true and Q and R are false in Statement Y
(D) Statement X is false and P is false in Statement Y
Ans: D


Q.46 Larger values of Ky in the Heckel Plot indicate formation of what quality of
tablets?
(A) Harder tablets (B) Softer tablets
(C) Fluffy tablets (D) Brittle tablets
Ans: A


Q.47 Which is NOT applicable to protein binding?
(A) Klotz reciprocal plot (B) Sandberg modified equation
(C) Blanchard equation (D) Detli plot
Ans: D


Q.48 According to USP, the speed regulating device of the dissolution apparatus
should be capable of maintaining the speed within limits of what % of the
selected speed?
(A) 1% (B) 2% (C) 4% (D) 5%
Ans: C


Q.49 Which statement is NOT true for steam distillation?
(A) It is also called differential distillation
(B) It can be used for separation of immiscible liquids -
(C) It can be applied for volatile substances
(D) It can be used for separation of miscible liquids
Ans: D


Q.50 What is Primogel?
(A) Substituted HPMC for direct compression
(B) Modified microcrystalline cellulose for direct compression
(C) Hydro gelling polymer for gel formation
(D) Modified starch for disintegration
Ans: D


Q.51 Statement [P] : Soft gelatin capsules contain 12-15 % moisture.


Statement [Q] : Hard gelatin capsule shells contain 6-10 % moisture.
Choose the correct statement?
(A) Both of the above statements P & Q are true
(B) Both of the above statements P & Q are false
(C) Statement P is true and Q is false
(D) Statement P is false and Q is true
Ans: B


Q.52 A drug whose solubility is 1 g/L in water, when given orally at a doseof 500 mg
is absorbed upto 95% of the administered dose. The drug belongs to which class
according to the BCS classification?
(A) Class I (B) Class II (C) Class III (D) Class IV
Ans: B


Q.53 The area of clear opening of any two successive sieves according to Tyler
standard is in the ratio of,
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 1 : 6 (C) 1: √2 (D) 1: √3
Ans: C


Q.54 Iodine-131 as sodium iodide solution is used as a radiopharmaceutical for
diagnostic and therapeutic purposes. Its usage is dependent on the release of
the following emissions:
[P] Alpha particles [Q] Positrons [R] Beta emission [S] Gamma radiation
Choose the correct combination of statements?
(A) R&S (B) Q&S (C) P&R (D) P&S
Ans: C


Q.55 Alkenes show typical electrophilic addition reactions. If an
electronwithdrawing group is attached to one of the carbons bearing the double
bond, what will happen to the mechanism of the addition reaction?
(A) It remains electrophilic (B) It becomes free radical addition
(C) It becomes pericyclic reaction (D) It becomes nucleophilic
Ans:


Q.56 Five-membered heteroaromatic compounds show a much higher rate of electrophilic
aromatic substitution reactions than the six-membered ones. This is due to
which one of the following reasons?
(A) Five-membered heteroaromatic compounds have higher circulating
electrondensity in the ring than the six-membered ones
(B) Five-membered heteroaromatic compounds have lower circulating electron
density in the ring than the six-membered ones
(C) Five-membered rings are smaller in size than the six membered ones which
affects their reaction rates
(D) Six membered heteroaromatic rings are flat while the five-membered ones are
puckered
Ans: A


Q.57 Arrange the following Lowry-Bronsted acids into their decreasing order of
acidity (highest to lowest)?
[P] C2H5OH [Q] H3C-CsCH [R] H20 [S] CH3NH2
(A) R>P>Q>S (B) P>R>Q>S (C) P>Q>R>S (D) R>Q>P>S
Ans: A


Q.58 Aprotic polar solvents increase the rate of SN2 reactions manifold. Enhancement
in the rate of such reactions is due to which one of the following effects?
(A) Solvation of the anion by the solvent leaving the cation unaffected
(B) Solvation of both of the ionic species
(C) Desolvation of the cation and solvation of the anion
(D) Solvation of the cation by the solvent leaving the anion unaffected
Ans: D


Q.59 In context of complexometry (complexometric titrations), the two terms labile
and inert complexes, are used frequently. Choose the correct statement about
them?
(A) Labile complexes are formed instantly while inert complexes take hours or
days in their formation
(B) Labile complexes take much longer tine in formation than inert complexes
(C) Labile complexes get hydrolyzed in water immediately while inert complexes
are stable in water
(D) Labile complexes get decomposed on mild heating in aqueous solutions while
inert complexes do not decompose
Ans: C


Q.60 In colorimetric estimation of a drug, the following sequence of reactions is
carried out: treatment of the aqueous solution of the drug with sodium nitrite
solution in acidic medium followed by addition of sulphamic acid and then
treatment with N-(l-naphthyl)ethylene- diamine in slightly basic medium to
obtain a pink colour; which is measured at a fixed wavelength to correlate the
quantity of the drug with the optical density. Identify the drug under
estimation?
(A) Streptomycin sulphate (B) Thiamine hydrochloride
(C) Dexamethasone (D) Sulphamethoxazole
Ans: D


Q.61 In the electrochemical series, the standard reduction potentials of copper and
zinc are + 0.337 V and - 0.763 V, respectively. If the half cells of both of
these metals are connected externally to each other through an external circuit
and a salt bridge, which one of the following processes will take place?
(A) Zinc metal electrode will start cussohing.in solution while copper ions will
start depositing on the copper electrode.
(B) Copper metal electrode will start dissolving in solution while zinc ions
will start depositing on the zinc electrode
(C) Both of the metal electrodes will start dissolving in the solution
(D) Both types of ions will start depositing on their respective electrodes
Ans: A


Q.62 Indicators used in complexometric titrations are chelating agents. Choose the
correct statement about them?
(A) Indicator-metal ion complex should have higher stability than EDTA-Metal ion
complex
(B) Indicator-metal ion complex should have lower stability than EDTA-Metal ion
complex
(C) Indicator-metal ion complex should have equal stability as EDTA-Metal ion
complex
(D) Stability of the indicator-metal ion complex is not an important criterion
in complexometric titrations
Ans: B


Q.63 Name the compound used for standardization of Karl-Fisher reagent in
aquametry?
(A) Sodium tartrate dihydrate (B) Copper sulphate pentahydrate
(C) Sodium iodide (D) Sodium thiosulphate
Ans: A


Q.64 The following statements are given:
[P] Conformational isomers are interconvertible by rotation around a single
bond while configurational isomers cannot be interconverted without
breaking a bond.
[Q] Configurational isomers could be optically active or optically inactive
while conformational isomers are optically inactive
[R] Geometric isomers must have a double bond in their structures
[S] Geometric and optical isomers are the two distinct categories of
configurational isomers.
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P, Q & S are true while R is false (B) P, R & S are true while Q is false
(C) Q, R & S are true while P is false (D) P, Q & R are true while S is false
Ans: B


Q.65 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and the
Reason (r):
Assertion (a): Formaldehyde and benzaldehyde both undergo Cannizaro reaction
while acetaldehyde and phenyacetaldehyde undergo Aldol
condensation.
Reason (r) : Aldehydes can undergo both Cannizaro as well as Aldol
condensation while ketones undergo only Cannizaro reaction.
(A) Both (a) and (r) are false (B)(a) is true but (r) is false
(C)(a) is false but (r) is true (D) Both (a) and (r) are true
Ans: B


Q.66 Choose the correct statement for writing the sequence of amino acids in a
polypeptide?
(A) Amino terminal is to be written on the left hand side while the carboxyl
terminal is to be written on the right hand side
(B) Carboxyl terminal is to be written on the left hand side while the amino
terminal is to be written on the right hand side
(C) Any of the amino acid terminals can be written on any sides but it is to be
mentioned by specifying the amino terminal and the carboxyl terminal in
abbreviations
(D) It varies from author to author how the sequence of amino acids in a
polypeptide is to be written
Ans: A


Q.67 A carbocation will NOT show one of the following properties. Choose that.
(A) Accept an electron to give a carbene
(B) Eliminate a proton to afford an alkene
(C) Combine with a negative ion
(D) Abstract a hydride ion to form an alkane
Ans: A


Q.68 Choose the FALSE statement for E2 mechanism in elimination reactions?
(A) These reactions are accompanied by rearrangements
(B) These reactions show a large hydrogen isotope effect.
(C) These reactions show a large element effect
(D) These reactions are not accompanied by hydrogen exchange
Ans: A


Q.69 Polyamine polystyrene resins belong to which category of ion-exchange resins?
(A) Strongly Acidic Cation Exchange Resins
(B) Strongly Basic Anion Exchange Resins
(C) Weakly Acidic Cation Exchange Resins
(D) Weakly Basic Anion Exchange Resins
Ans: D


Q.70 Which amongst the following auxochromes produces a shift towards higher energy
wave length?
(A) -CH3 (B) -NHCH3 (C) -CI (D) -C=0
Ans: B


Q.71 Chloroform is stored in dark colored bottles because it is oxidized in presence
of light and air to a toxic compound. Identify that.
(A) CH2Cl2 (B) COCl2 (C) CO (D) CCl4
Ans: B


Q.72 Given are the four statements about NMB:
[P] 13CMR is a less sensitive technique than PMR [Q] Both 13C and :H have 1=1/2
[R] Precessional frequency of the nucleus is directly proportional to the
applied magnetic field
[S] Deuterium exchange studies can be performed to ascertain protons attached to
hetero atoms.
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P, Q & R are true while S is false (B) R, S & Q are true while P is false
(C) S, P & Q are true while R is false (D) All are true
Ans: D


Q.73 Discrepancies in potential measurements involving factors like 'alkaline error'
and 'asymmetry potential' are associated with which of the following electrodes?
(A) Hydrogen electrode (B) Quinhydrone electrode
(C) Saturated calomel electrode (D) Glass Electrode
Ans: A


Q.74 What is the wave number equivalent of 400 nm wavelength?
(A) 0.0025 cm-1 (B) 0.25 cm-1 (C) 2500 cm-1 (D) 25000 cm-1
Ans: D


Q.75 All of the given compounds show n —> sigma* transition. Identify which one will
have the highest λmax?
(A) Methanol (B) Methylamine (C) Methyl iodide (D) Methyl bromide
Ans: D


Q.76 Which of the following statements are true for ginseng root?
[P] It is among the most traded plant material of Brazil. [Q] It is obtained
from Panax ginseng and Panax quinquefolium. [R] It is obtained from young
plants of six months to one year age. [S] It contains derivatives of
protopanaxadiol.
(A) P&Q (B) R&S (C) Q&R (D) Q & S
Ans: D


Q.77 Which of the following alkaloids is derived from tyrosine?
(A) Quinine (B) Morphine (C) Atropine (D) Ephedrine
Ans: B


Q.78 Anomocytic stomata, trichomes with collapsed cell and absence of calcium
oxalate crystals are some of the microscopic features of which plant?
(A) Digitalis (B) Hyoscyamus (C) Mentha (D) Senna
Ans: A


Q.79 A glycoalkaloid,
[P] contains sulphur in addition to nitrogen in its molecule.
[Q] is glycosidic in nature.
[R] can be hydrolysed to an alkaloid.
[S] always contains endocyclic nitrogen in its molecule.
Choose the correct option.
(A) P&R (B) Q&S (C) Q&R (D) P&Q
Ans: B


Q.80 Which of the following drugs is a triterpenoid containing root?
(A) Valerian (B) Brahmi (c) Satavari (D) Adusa
Ans: A


Q.81 The following options carry the name of the plant, part used and its family.
Find a WRONG combination.
(A) Aegle marmelos, fruit & Rutaceae
(B) Conium maculatum, fruit & Umbelliferae
(C) Glycyrrhiza glabra, root and stolon & Leguminosae
(D) Strophanthus gratus, seed & Scrophulariaceae
Ans: D


Q.82 Each of the following options lists the name of the drug, its class,
pharmacological action and plant source. Choose an option showing a WRONG
combination.
(A) Asafoetida, oleo-gum-resin, anti-flatulence, Ferula foetida
(B) Benzoin, balsam, antiseptic, Styrax benzoin
(C) Myrrh, gum-resin, antiseptic, Commiphora wightii
(D) Papaine, enzyme, proteolytic, Carica papaya
Ans: C


Q.83 Determine the correctness or otherwise mt the following Assertion [a] and the
Reason [r]:
Assertion (a) : Tannins are polyphenohc substances occurring in plant cell sap.
Hydrolysable and condensed tannins are differentiated by match
stick test.
Reason (r) : The condensed tannin- are resistant to acid hydrolysis,
therefore stain the lignin present in match stick.
(A) Both (a) and (r) are true, and r . - reason for (a)
(B) Both (a) and (r) are true, but (r is NOT :he correct reason for (a)
(C) (a) is true but (r) is NOT the correct reason for (a)
(D) Both (a) and (r) are false
Ans: B


Q.84 In acetate mevalonate pathway geranyl pyrophosphate leads to
formation of monoterpenes, the major constituents of volatile oils.
[P] Geranyl pyrophosphate contains two isoprene units
[Q] Monoterpenes have 15 carbon atoms
[R] The two isoprene units condense in head to tail fashion to give monoterpenes
[S] Isoprene unit has molecular formula of C5 H8.
Which one of the given statements is correct?
(A) P is true, Q is false, R is true, S is false
(B) P is false, Q is true, R is true, S is false
(C) P is true, Q is true, R is false, S is true
(D) P is true, Q is false, R is true, S is true
Ans: D


Q.85 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the
Reason [r]:
Assertion (a) : Castor oil is soluble in alcohol and is used as purgative.
Reason (r) : The oil contains ricinoleic acid having a hydroxyl group at
C-12 position which is responsible for its solubility in
alcohol and its purgative action.
(A) Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is NOT the correct reason for (a)
(B) (a) is true but (r) is NOT the correct reason for (a)
(C) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a)
(D) Both (a) and (r) are false
Ans: C


Q.86 Which of the following drugs does NOT induce mydriasis?
(A) Atropine (B) Ephedrine (C) Phentolamine (D) Cocaine
Ans: C


Q.87 Which of the following beta blockers has been shown clinically to reduce
mortality in patients of symptomatic heart failure?
(A) Atenolol (B) Carvedilol (C) Propranolol (D) Esmolol
Ans: B


Q.88 Rhabdomyolysis is the side effect associated with which of the following
classes of drugs?
(A) ACE inhibitors (B) Statins
(C) Calcium channel blockers (D) Sodium channel blockers
Ans: B


Q.89 Patients taking isosorbide mononitrate or nitroglycerine should be advised not
to take sildenafil. This drug-drug interaction causes which of the following
actions?
(A) Respiratory failure (B) Severe hypotension
(C) Prolongation of QT interval (D) Myocardial ischemia
Ans: B


Q.90 Which of the following statements is TRUE for angiotensin-II?
(A) Causes myocyte hypertrophy
(B) Decreases the action of sympathetic nervous system
(C) Increases force of myocardial contraction
(D) Decreases the synthesis and release of aldosterone
Ans: A


Q.91 All of the given four drugs cause vasodilatation. Choose the correct statement
about them.
[P] Bradykinin [Q] Minoxidil [R] Acetylcholine [S] Hydralazine
(A) P & Q cause release of nitric oxide
(B) Q & R do not cause release of nitric oxide
(C) R & S cause release of nitric oxide
(D) P & S do not cause release of nitric oxide
Ans: A


Q.92 Blood level monitoring of HbAlc is important in which of the given diseased
states?
(A) Hypercholesterolemia (B) Diabetes mellitus
(C) Myocardial infarction (D) Congestive heart failure
Ans: B


Q.93 Which of the fallowings is the most effective monotherapy for raising HDL
cholesterol?
(A) Statins (B) Niacin (C) Ezetimibe (D) w-3-Fatty acids
Ans: B


Q.94 Which of the following pairs has high binding affinity for Sa-reductase?
(A) Letrozole and androstenedione (B) Finasteride and testolactone
(C) Finasteride and 5-DHT (D) Finasteride and testosterone
Ans: C


Q.95 Which is the molecular target for the vinca alkaloids as anticancer agents?
(A) Tyrosine kinase (B) DNA (C) Ribosomes (D) Tubulin
Ans: D


Q.96 A 64 year old woman with a history of Type II diabetes is diagnosed with heart
failure. Which of the followings would be a POOR choice in controlling her
diabetes?
(A) Metformin (B) Pioglitazone (C) Glipizide (D) Exenatide
Ans: B


Q.97 Which of the following parameters from plasma concentration time profile study
gives indication of the rate of drug absorption?
(A) Cmax (B) Tmax (C) AUC (D) tl/2
Answer: B


Q.98 Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants acts directly on the
contractile mechanism of the muscle fibers?
(A) Pancuronium (B) Baclofen (C) Dantrolene (D) Chlorzoxazone
Ans: C


Q.99 Choose the correct pair of the neurodegenerative disorders from those given
below.
(A) Parkinson's disease and Alzheimer's disease
(B) Schizophrenia and Mania
(C) Alzheimer's disease and Schizophrenia
(D) Parkinson's disease and Autism
Ans: A


Q.100 Mifepristone and gemeprost combination is used for medical termination of
pregnancy. The action is caused due to which of the following mechanisms?
(A) Mifepristone is an antiestrogen while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E
receptor agonist.
(B) Mifepristone is an antiprogestin while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E
receptor agonist.
(C) Mifepristone is an antiandrogen while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E
receptor agonist.
(D) Mifepristone is an antiprogestin while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E
receptor antagonist.
Ans: B


Q.101 Upon standing sometimes gel system shrinks a bit and little liquid is pressed out. What is this phenomenon known as? -
(A) Oozing (B) Syneresis (C) Shrinking (D) Desolvation
Ans: B


Q.102 Study the following two statements and choose the correct answer: [P] Antibodies are serum proteins providing immunity.
[Q] IgG provides immunity to new born babies while IgM is the first generated antibody.
(A) P is correct and Q is incorrect (B) P is incorrect and Q is correct
(C) Both P and Q are correct (D) Both P and Q are incorrect
Ans: C


Q.103 Non-linear pharmacokinetics can be expected due to
[P] Enzyme induction [Q] Active secretion
Choose the correct answer.
(A) Both P and Q are true (B) P is true, Q is false
(C) Q is true, P is false (D) Both P and Q are false
Ans: A


Q.104 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
(A) Chick Martin test uses organic matter in media
(B) The organism in Rideal-Walker test is S. typhi
(C) Rideal-Walker test uses organic matter in media
(B) The organism in Chick Martin test is S. typhi
Ans: C


Q.105 Which of the following routes of administration of drugs is associated with Phlebitis?
(A) Subcuteneous (B) Intravenous (C) Intraspinal (D) Intradural
Ans: B
Q.106 Which microbe is used for validation of sterilization by filtration process?
(A) Bacillus stearothermophilus (B) Pseudomonas diminuta
(C) Bacillus subtilis (D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Ans: A


Q.107 Which wavelength of the UV light provides maximum germicidal action?
(A) 253.7 nm (B) 275.5 nm (C) 283.5 nm (D) 240.0 nm
Ans: A


Q.108 Which of the following forces contribute to stability of charge-transfer complexes?
(A) Resonance forces
(B) Resonance and London dispersion forces
(C) Dipole-dipole interactions and London dispersion forces
(D) Resonance forces and dipole-dipole interactions
Ans: D


Q.109 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the fallowing statements:
[P] Rheopexy is the phenomenon when a sol farms gel more readily when sheared gently. [Q] In a rheopectic system, sol is the equilibrium form.
[R] Rheopexy is a phenomenon when a sol forms gel when the material is kept at rest.
(AT [R] is true but [P] and [Q] are false (B) [P] is true but [Q] and [R] are false (C) [P], [Q] and [R], all are false (D) [P], [Q] and [R], all are true
Ans: B


Q.110 Molecules in the smectic liquid crystals are characterized by which one of the followings?
(A) Mobility in three directions and rotation in one axis
(B) Mobility in two directions and rotation in one axis
(C) Mobility in two directions and no rotation
(D) Mobility in three directions and no rotation
Ans: B


Q.111 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]:
Assertion [a] : For a pharmaceutical powder true density is greater than the granule density.
Reason [r] : Mercury displacement used for determining granule density, allows penetration of liquid into internal pores of the particles.
(A) [a] is true but [r] is false
(B) Both [a] and [r] are false
(C) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(D) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is NOT the correct reason for [a]
Ans: A


Q.112 Define Plasmapheresis? Choose the correct answer.
(A) The process of collecting plasma and returning the red blood cells concentrate to the donor
(B) The process of collecting red blood cells concentrate and returning the plasma to the donor
(C) The process of separating white blood cells from blood
(D) The process of generating artificial blood plasma expanders
Ans: A


Q.113 Choose the correct sequence of Moisture Vapor Transmission Rate in packaging materials?
(A) Paper > Aluminium foil > PVC > PVdC
(B) Aluminium foil > PVC > PVdC > Paper
(C) Aluminium foil > PVdC > PVC > Paper
(D) Paper > PVC > PVdC > Aluminium foil
Ans: C


Q.114 What will be the dose required to maintain therapeutic concentration of 20 microgram/ml for 24 hr of a drug exhibiting total clearance of 2 L/hr?
(A) 96 mg (B) 480 mg (C) 960 mg (D) 48 mg
Ans: C


Q.115 The Reynolds number widely used to classify flow behavior of fluids is the ratio of which one of the followings?
(A) Inertial forces to gravitational forces (B) Inertial forces' to viscous forces
(C) Viscous forces to inertial forces (D) Viscous forces to gravitational forces
Ans: B


Q.116 What for the baffles are provided in a shell and tube heat exchanger?
(A) To increase turbulence CB) To decrease turbulence
(C) To prevent corrosion (D) To increase shell side passes
Ans: A


Q.117 Which statement is FALSE for Association Colloids?
(A) They are also called amphiphiles (B) They contain aggregated molecules
(C) They show partial solvation (D) They are also called micelles
Ans: C


Q.118 What will be the time required for a drug exhibiting first order rate constant of 4.6/hr to be degraded from initial concentration of 100 mg/ml to 10 mg/ml?
(A) 2hr (B) 4hr (C) 9 hr (D) 0.5 hr
Ans: D


Q.119 What will be the urine to plasma ratio of a weakly acidic drug having pKa of 5? [urine (pH = 5) plasma (pH = 7)]
(A) 1 : 101 (B) 1 : 201 (C) 2 : 101 (D) 1 : 202
Ans: B


Q.120 If the distillation graph using McCabe Thiele method is parallel to X-axis, then the feed is which one of the followings?
(A) Saturated liquid (B) Saturated vapor (C) Superheated liquid (D) Superheated vapor
Ans: A


Q.121 S.O.S means which one of the followings?
(A) Take occasionally (B) Take immediately (C) Take when necessary (D) Take as directed
Ans: C


Q.122 Which of the followings is NOT a reciprocating pump?
(A) Plunger pump (B) Diaphragm pump (C) Gear pump (D) Piston pump
Ans: C


Q.123 Hydrogen peroxide solution (20 volumes) is used topically as a mild antiseptic. It is mainly used for cleaning of wounds which csold be due to some of the following actions of hydrogen peroxide.
[P] Astringent action [Q] Nascent hydrogen releasing action
[R] Oxidizing action [S] Mechanical cleansing action
Choose the correct statements- for the use of hydrogen peroxide as cleaning agent for wounds?
(A) P&R (B) P&Q (C) R&Q (D) R & S
Ans: A


Q.124 Boric acid is a weak acid (pKa 9.19) which cannot be titrated with a standard solution of sodium hydroxide using phenolphthalein as indicator. This titration becomes possible on addition of glycerol due to one of the following reactions. Choose the correct reaction?
(A)Boric acid becomes boronic acid on reaction with glycerol
(B) Boric acid gives a monoprotic tetravalent boron ester with glycerol
(C) Boric acid gives a tribasic acid on reaction with glycerol


(D)Two boric acid molecules combine to give an anhydride in presence of glycerol
Ans: B


Q.125 A tooth paste contains stannous fluoride and calcium pyrophosphate along with other formulation constituents. Choose the correct statement out of the followings?
(A) Stannous fluoride is an anticaries agent while calcium pyrophosphate is a dentifrice
(B) Stannous fluoride is a dentifrice while calcium pyrophosphate is a desensitizing agent
(C) Stannous fluoride is a desensitizing agent while calcium pyrophosphate is an anticaries agent
(D) Both are dentifrices while calcium pyrophosphate is additionally a desensitizing agent
Ans: A


Q.126 Magnesium trisilicate is considered to be a better antacid than aluminium hydroxide due to its following additional properties:
[P] It has a fixed chemical composition
[Q] It forms colloidal silicone dioxide
[R] Magnesium ions overcome constipation
[S] Magnesium ions cause higher inhibition of pepsin than aluminium ions Choose the correct combination of statements?
(A) Q&S (B) R&S (C) P&Q (D) Q&R
Ans: D


Q.127 An iron compound used as heamatinic agent must meet two requirements i.e. it should be biologically available and be non-irritating. Which one of the following compounds meet the above two requirements most closely?
(A) Ferric chloride (B) Ferric ammonium sulphate
(C) Ferric ammonium citrate (D) Ferrous thioglycollate
Ans: B


Q.128 Diels-Alder reaction can be earned out in which of the following heterocyclic compounds most readily?
(A) Pyrrole (B) Thiophene (C) Furan (D) Pyridine
Ans: C


Q.129 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]:
Assertion (a) : Quaternary ammonium phase transfer catalysts can enhance the rate of nucleophilic aliphatic substitution reactions in biphasic systems with water soluble nucleophiles.
Reason (r) : Quaternary ammonium compounds are highly polar, positively charged water soluble compounds.
(A) Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct reason for (a)
(B) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a)
(C) (a) is true (r) is false
(D) Both (a) and (r) are false
Ans: B


Q.130 Pyridine is more basic than pyrrole. This is due to which of the following facts?
(A) Lone pair of electrons on N in pyrrole is localized
(B) Lone pair of electrons on N in pyridine is localized
(C) Nitrogen of pyrrole has one hydrogen atom attached to it while pyridine does not have any
(D) Pyridine has three double bonds while pyrrole has only two
Ans: B


Q.131 In nucleophilic aliphatic substitution reactions arrange the following leaving groups in decreasing order of their leaving capacity?
[P] Brosyl [Q] Hydroxyl [R] Chloro [S] Mesyl
(A)S>R>P>Q (B)P>S>R>Q
(C) R>Q>S>P (D) R > S > Q > P
Ans: B


Q.132 Which one of the given compounds can be used as primary standard for standardization of perchloric acid solution in non-aqueous titrations?
(A) Potassium hydrogen phthalate (B) Sodium bicarbonate
(C) Potassium dihydrogen phosphate (D) Sodium methoxide
Ans: A


Q.133 Following are the desirable properties of the liquid phase used in GLC EXCEPT for one of the followings. Identify that.
(A) It should be inert to the analyse;
(B) It should have high viscosity at operating temperature
(C) It should have low vapour pressure at the operating temperature
(D) It should have a high resolving power
Ans: B


Q.134 To synthesize sulphonylurea antidiabetics, which of the following reactions can be used?
(A) Reacting a suitably substituted sulphonyl chloride with a desired urea derivative under basic conditions
(B) Reacting a suitably substituted sulphonamide with a desired isocyanate derivative
(C) Reacting a suitably substituted sulphonic acid with a desired isocyanate derivative
(D) Reacting a suitably substituted sulphoxide with a desired urea derivative
Ans: B


Q.135 In polarography, DME has a number of advantages. One of the advantages is that mercury has large hydrogen overpotential. It means which one of the followings?
(A) Hydrogen ions get easily reduced on the DIME
(B) Hydrogen gas gets easily reduced on the DME
(C) Hydrogen ions require high potential to be reduced at DME
(D) Water is difficult to get oxidized at DME
Ans: A
Q.136 In HPLC analysis what type of column would you prefer?
(A) A column with high HETP and high number of plates
(B) A column with low HETP and low number of plates
(C) A column with high HETP and low number of plates
(D) A column with low HETP and high number of plates
Ans: D


Q.137 In an optically active organic compound a chiral carbon has the following attached groups:
[P] -CO—CH3
[Q] -C—OH
[R] -CH = CH2
[S] -C=CH
Using 'Sequence Rules' choose the correct order of priority of the groups?
(A) Q > P > S > R
(B) P > Q > R > S
(C) Q > P > R > S
(D) P > Q > S > R
Ans: A


Q.138 Which one is an example of a bulk property detector used in HPLC?
(A) Fluorescence detector (B) Photo diode array detector (C) Refractive index detector (D) UV detector
Ans: C


Q.139 A 250 jig/ml solution of a drug gave an absorbance of 0.500 at 250 nm at a path length of 10 mm. What is the specific absorbance of the drug at 250 nm?
(A) 0.002 cm-1gm-1litre (B) 0.002 cm-1gm-1 dl
(C) 20 cm-1gm-1 litre (D) 20 cm1gm-1dl
Ans: D


Q.140 Following statements are given for a chemical reaction:
Change in Gibb's free energy of the reaction has a negative value. Change in Enthalpy of the reaction has a negative value Change in Entropy of the reaction has a positive value Based on the above statements choose the correct answer.
(A) The reaction is spontaneous.
(B) The reaction is non-spontaneous.
(C) The reaction could either be spontaneous or non-spontaneous.
(D) The reaction can never be spontaneous.
Ans: A


Q. 141 Which of the following statements is WRONG?
(A) The energy required for removing an electron from a molecule varies in the given order : lone pair < conjugated n < non conjugated n < a
(B) Isotopic ratio is particularly useful for the detection and estimation of number of S, CI and Br atoms in the compound in MS
(C) Neutral fragments and molecules do not get detected in the detector in MS
(D) The most intense peak in the MS is called the molecular ion peak
Ans: D


Q.142 The protons ortho to the nitro group in p-nitrotoluene are examples of which one of the following types?
(A) Chemically equivalent but magnetically non-equivalent protons
(B) Chemically and magnetically equivalent protons
(C) Chemically and magnetically nonequivalent protons
(D) Chemically nonequivalent but magnetically equivalent protons
Ans: A


Q.143 The peak at m/z 91 in the mass spectrum for alkylbenzenes is due to which one of the followings?
(A) Alpha fission (B) Mc-Laffartey rearrangement
(C) Retro Diels-Alder rearrangement (D) Tropylium ion formation
Ans: D


Q.144 Which one of the followings is NOT bioisostearic pair
(A) Divalent ether (-0-) and amine (–N-H)
(B) Hydroxyl (-OH) and thiol (-SH)
(C) Carboxylate (C02-) and sulfone (SO2)
(D) Hydrogen (-H) and fluorine (-F)
Ans: A


Q.145 The catalytic triad in acetylcholineesfcera«e is composed of which of the following amino acid residues?
(A) Serine, Histidine and Glutamate (B) Serine, Arginine and Glutamate
(C) Threonine, Histidine and Aspartate (D) Threonine, Arginine and Glutamate
Ans: A


Q.146 Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Aliphatic protons have chemical shifts > 7 ppm
(B) Spin quantum number of proton is 1
(C) Chemical shift describes electronic environment of a proton
(D) Vicinal coupling constant is always higher than geminal coupling constant
Ans: C


Q.147 Beta-Carboline ring system is present in
(A) Emetine (B) Riboflavine (C) Deserpidine (D) d-Tubocurarine
Ans: C


Q.148 Of the four stereoisomers of chloramphenicol which one is the biologically active isomer?
(A) L-Erythro (B) L-Threo (C) D-Erythro (D) D-Threo
Ans: D


Q.149 Fajan's method of titrimetric analysis involves detection of the end point on the basis of which one the followings?
(A) Colour change (B) Appearance of a precipitate (C) Neutralization reaction (D) Adsorption phenomenon
Ans: A


Q.150 In FT-IR instruments Michaelson interferometer is used in place of grating. The function of the interferometer is to act as a modulator'. What do you understand by this statement?
(A) The function of the interferometer is to act as a monochromator
(B) The function of the interferometer is to convert high frequency radiations into low ones
(C) The function of the interferometer is to convert low frequency radiations into high ones
(D) The function of the interferometer is to convert frequency domain spectra into time domain spectra
Ans: A

MPPSC Public Administration 2011 Solved Paper

MPPSC Public Administration 2011 Solved Paper

(MADHYA PRADESH PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION 2011- SUBJECT PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION)

MPPSC 2011 Solved paper

51. The term ‘Performance Budget’ was coined by—
(A) Administrative Reforms Commission of India
(B) Second Hoover Commission of USA
(C) Estimates Committee of India
(D) First Hoover Commission of USA
Ans : (D)


52. During passing of budget in the Parliament ‘Guilotine’ is applied to those demands which are—
(A) Discussed and approved
(B) Discussed but not approved
(C) Discussed and reduced
(D) Not discussed for want of time
Ans : (D)


53. Audit of State Government is—
(A) A state subject
(B) A union subject
(C) In the concurrent list
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)


54. In which year was the Committee on Public Undertakings constituted by the Lok Sabha ?
(A) 1953
(B) 1956
(C) 1963
(D) 1964
Ans : (D)


55. The number of demands in the general budget for civil expenditure is—
(A) 103
(B) 106
(C) 102
(D) 109
Ans : (A)


56. The rule of lapse means—
(A) All appropriations voted by the legislature expire at the end of the financial year
(B) All pending bills in Parliament lapse with its prorogation
(C) The demand for grants of a ministry lapse with criticism of its policy by the opposition
(D) The appropriation bill lapses if it is not returned by the Rajya Sabha within 14 days
Ans : (A)


57. The C & AG of India does not audit the receipts and expenditure of—
(A) Municipal undertakings
(B) State Governments
(C) Government companies
(D) Central Government
Ans : (A)


58. The role of the Finance Commission in Central-State fiscal relations has been undermined by—
(A) The State Governments
(B) The Zonal Councils
(C) The Planning Commission
(D) The Election Commission
Ans : (A)


59. The Railway Budget was separated from the Central Budget in the year—
(A) 1920
(B) 1921
(C) 1922
(D) 1923
Ans : (B)


60. The Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee of the Parliament is appointed by—
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) President of India
(D) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
Ans : (A)


61. The question asked orally after the question hour in the House is called—
(A) Supplementary question
(B) Short notice question
(C) Starred question
(D) Unstarred question
Ans : (C)


62. The economy cut motion seeks to reduce the proposed expenditure of a demand for grant by—
(A) Rupees one hundred
(B) Rupee one
(C) A specified amount
(D) An unspecified amount
Ans : (C)


63. Who was the Chairman of the Economic Reforms Commission (1981-84) ?
(A) Dharam Vira
(B) L. K. Jha
(C) K. Hanumanthiya
(D) B. G. Deshmukh
Ans : (B)


64. In which year was the decision of separating accounting function from audit function taken by the
Central Government for its financial administration ?
(A) 1950
(B) 1965
(C) 1976
(D) 2000
Ans : (C)


65. In which recruitment, in a system for higher position is open to all the qualified candidates who may
wish to apply is known as ?
(A) Direct recruitment
(B) Recruitment by promotion
(C) Ordinary recruitment
(D) Passive recruitment
Ans : (A)


66. ‘Position classification’ is the classification of—
(A) Salaries
(B) Duties
(C) Departments
(D) Personal status of incumbents
Ans : (B)


67. The civil service was defined as “professional body of officials, permanent, paid and skilled” by—
(A) Herman Finer
(B) O. G. Stahl
(C) Felix Nigro
(D) E. N. Gladden
Ans : (A)


68. A new All India Service can be created by—
(A) An amendment of the constitution
(B) An executive order
(C) A resolution under Article 312 of the Constitution
(D) A statute
Ans : (C)


69. The British concept of Civil Service neutrality is laid down by—
(A) Fulton Committee
(B) Assheton Committee
(C) Masterman Committee
(D) Northcote-Trevelyn Committee
Ans : (C)


70. The ‘spoils system’ in the USA began during the period of—
(A) Jefferson
(B) Jackson
(C) Washington
(D) Adams
Ans : (B)


71. Promotion in Civil Services indicates—
(A) Such changes in the situation which indicate difficult work and more important responsibility
(B) Change in the place of work
(C) Transfer of work from field to Headquarters
(D) Always an increase in pay
Ans : (A)


72. Which of the following is not an All India Service ?
(A) Indian Foreign Service
(B) Indian Administrative Service
(C) Indian Forest Service
(D) Indian Police Service
Ans : (A)


73. The Union Public Service Commission of India has been established under the—
(A) Article 315
(B) Article 320
(C) Article 325
(D) Article 335
Ans : (A)

AFCAT Reasoning Solved Question Paper

AFCAT Reasoning Solved Question Paper

Solved Reasoning Question paper of AFCAT

1. After walking 6 km, I turned right and covered a distance of 2 km, then turned left and covered a distance of 10 km. In the end, I was moving towards the north. From which direction did I start my journey?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Ans. (c)


2. In a certain code language EDITION is written as IDETNOI.
How will the word MEDICAL be written in that code language ?
(a) DEMILAC
(b) LACJM
(c) DIEMCAL
(d) MCADILE
Ans. (a)


3. Find the odd one—
(a) Shelley
(b) Keats
(c) Chaucer
(d) Churchill
Ans. (a)


4. In a row of boys Ganesh is 12th from the left and Rajan is 15th from the right. When they interchange their positions Rajan becomes 20th from the right. How many boys are there in the row?
(a) 29
(b) 31
(c) 32
(d) 30
Ans. (b)

5. There are four roads. You are coming from South and want to go to the temp1e The road to your left leads away from coffee house. The front straight road leads to the college only. In which direction is the temple located?
(à) North
(b) South
(c) East
(d) West
Ans. (c)

ENGINEERING ASSISTANTS in AIR and DD 2010 Question PAPER - SOLVED

ENGINEERING ASSISTANTS in AIR and DD 2010 Question PAPER - SOLVED

ENGINEERING ASSISTANTS in AIR and DD 2010 MODEL PAPER
AIR and DD Engineering Assistants Solved Question Paper

1. Which one of the following physical quantities, is not defined in the terms of force per unit area:
(a) pressure
(b) strain
(c) stress
(d) Young’s modulus
Ans:b


2. The distance moved by a moving body is equal to:
(a) area between the distance-time graph and distance axis
(b) area between the speed-time graph and time axis
(c) area between the distance-time graph and time axis
(d) area between the speed-time graph and distance axis.
Ans:b


3. A beaker containing water weighs 100 gm. It is placed on the pan of a balance and a piece of metal weighing 70 gm. and having a volume of 10cc. is placed inside the water in the beaker. The weight of the beaker and the metal would be :
(a) 170gm.
(c) 100gm.
(b)160gm.
(d)30gm.
Ans:a


4. For the same kinetic energy, the momentum shall be maximum for:
(a) electron
(b) proton
(c) deuteron
(d) alpha particle
Ans:d

L.I.C Apprentice Development officers 2008 Recruitment Exam General Knowledge Solved Paper

L.I.C Apprentice Development officers 2008 Recruitment Exam General Knowledge Solved Paper

LIC Apprentice Development officers Recruitment Exam 2008 GK Paper

L.I.C General Knowledge Solved Paper

1. Who is the highest Law officer of a State ?
(A) Attorney General
(B) Secretary General Law Department
(C) Advocate General
(D) Solicitor General
Ans : (C)


2. The place for Amritsar was given by the Mughal Emperor Akbar to—
(A) Guru Amar Das
(B) Guru Hari Kishan
(C) Guru Ram Das
(D) Guru Tegh Bahadur
Ans : (C)


3. Which section of IPC is applicable in a case of death due to negligence ?
(A) 304 Part-I
(B) 304 Part-II
(C) 304 A
(D) 307
Ans : (C)


4. Which of the following pairs is wrongly matched ?
(A) Sabarigiri Project —Gujarat
(B) Sharavathy Project —Karnataka
(C) Kundah Project —Tamil Nadu
(D) Balimela Project —Orissa
Ans : (A)


5. The Olympic Flame symbolises—
(A) Speed, perfection and strength
(B) Unity among various nations of the world
(C) Continuity between the ancient and modern games
(D) Sports as a means of securing harmony among the nations
Ans : (C)


6. Which of the following deals with economic offences ?
(A) TADA
(B) MISA
(C) NSA
(D) COFEPOSA
Ans : (D)


7. The earth rotates on its axis from—
(A) East to West
(B) West to East
(C) North to South
(D) South to North
Ans : (B)


8. A Cricket match is being telecasted live from Delhi. If the match commences at 10 a.m. at What time would viewers in London have to tune in their sets ?
(A) 10 a.m.
(B) 4·30 a.m.
(C) 4.30 p.m.
(D) 10 p.m.
Ans : (B)


9. ‘The United Kingdom’ consists of England and—
(A) Northern Ireland, Scotland and Wales
(B) Northern Ireland, Palma and Iceland
(C) Scotland, Wales and Faeroe Island
(D) Scotland, Sardinia and Wales
Ans : (A)


10. Which of the following is the publisher of ‘Employment News’ ?
(A) Indian Express Group
(B) Times of India Group
(C) Ministry of Human Resources Development
(D) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
Ans : (D)


11. The states of India having common border with Myanmar are—
(A) Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Mizoram, Manipur, Tripura, Meghalya
(C) Mizoram, Tripura, Meghalya, Assam
(D) Assam, Manipur, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh
Ans : (A)


12. In which of the following states ‘Koyana Hydro Electric Power Project’ is located ?
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Kerala
(D) Orissa
Ans : (B)


13. The scientist associated with the success of Green Revolution is—
(A) V. R. Rao
(B) J. C. Bose
(C) S. S. Bhatnagar
(D) Norman Borlaug
Ans : (D)


14. The largest coal deposit in India is in—
(A) Damodar Valley
(B) Satpura Valley
(C) Godavari Valley
(D) Brahmani Valley
Ans : (A)


15. National Highway-2 connects—
(A) Srinagar and Leh
(B) Varanasi and Kanyakumari
(C) Agra and Mumbai
(D) Delhi and Kolkata
Ans : (D)


16. The national centre for production of bio-fertilizers is at—
(A) Hyderabad
(B) Ghaziabad
(C) Nellore
(D) Dehradoon
Ans : (B)


17. Which of the following satellites helps to telecast T.V. Network Programmes all over the country ?
(A) APPLE
(B) Rohini
(C) Aryabhatta
(D) INSAT–1B
Ans : (D)


18. Which Sports Association of Indian lifted the ban from its players ‘foreign tours’ ?
(A) BCCI
(B) All India Tennis Federation
(C) Badminton Association of India
(D) All India Football Federation
Ans : (A)


19. In which state ‘Kanya Vidyadhan Yojana’ is operational ?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan
(D) Haryana
Ans : (A)


20. With which country U.N.O. has an agreement for ‘Oil for food’ ?
(A) Kuwait
(B) Iran
(C) Iraq
(D) Venezuela
Ans : (C)


21. Where will World Cup Football, 2010 be played ?
(A) South Africa
(B) Mexico
(C) Brazil
(D) Canada
Ans : (A)


22. Who has declared as ‘Miss India World, 2007’ ?
(A) Puja Gupta
(B) Amrita Pathi
(C) Puja Chitgopekar
(D) Sarah Jane Dias
Ans : (D)


23. Electron was discovered by—
(A) Rutherford
(B) Bohr
(C) J. J. Thomson
(D) Ramsay
Ans : (C)


24. Which film won the Best Picture in the 79th Annual Academy Award (Oscar Award) 2007 conferred in Feb. 2007 ?
(A) The Departed
(B) The Queen
(C) The Dream Girls
(D) The Last King of Scotland
Ans : (A)


25. In which country of the world, the largest Buddhist temple is located ?
(A) Japan
(B) Indonesia
(C) China
(D) India
Ans. - (B)

MPPSC 2011 Solved Paper

MPPSC 2011 Solved Paper

(MADHYA PRADESH PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION)
MPPSC Public Administration Question paper

1. Which of the following administrative thinkers has defined administration as “the organization and direction of human and material resources to achieve desired ends” ?
(A) L. D. White
(B) J. M. Pfiffner
(C) J. A. Veig
(D) H. A. Simon
Ans : (B)


2. Which one of the following statements is not correct in respect of New Public Management ?
(A) It has market orientation
(B) It upholds public interest
(C) It advocates managerial autonomy
(D) It focuses on performance appraisal
Ans : (B)


3. ‘Good Governance’ and ‘Participating Civil Society for Development’ were stressed in World Bank Report of -

(A) 1992
(B) 1997
(C) 2000
(D) 2003
Ans : (A)
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SSC Syllabus Scientific Assistant -IMD Last Date:26-October2011

Amazing Information - http://amazing-info.blogspot.com

Good Humour , Entertainment, Jokes http://7joke.blogspot.com/ / /Updated Sarkari Naukri http://sarkari-damad.blogspot.com/  / Updated Admission Notice India http://admission-query.blogspot.com/ , Latest Naukri Recruitment Results - http://naukri-recruitment-result.blogspot.com/, Competition Exam Papers / Syllabus - http://syllabus123.blogspot.com/

STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION (SSC)
CGO Complex, Lodhi Road,New Delhi  - 110003

Last Date : 26.10.2011

Date of Exam: 18.12.2011

Staff Selection Commission (SSC) will hold on Sunday, the 18/12/2011, an open competitive examination for recruitment to the post of Scientific Assistant in Indian Meteorological Department, a Group ‗B‘ Non-Gazetted, Non-Ministerial post :

• Scientific Assistant :  465 posts (UR-230, OBC-128, SC-70, ST-37) (PH-10), Pay Scale : Rs. 9300 - 34800 grade pay Rs. 4200/-, Qualification : Bachelor’s Degree in Science (with Physics as one of the subject)/ Computer Science/ Information Technology/ Computer Applications or Diploma in Electronics and Telecommunication Engineering from a recognized Institution/ University or equivalent., Age : 28 years.

Examination  Centres: 1.Delhi – 2201, 2.Chennai – 8201,3.Kolkata – 4410,4.Mumbai – 7204,
5.Allahabad – 3003,6.Guwahati (Dispur) – 5105,7.Bangalore – 9001,8.Raipur – 6204,
9.Chandigarh – 1601

How to Apply : Apply Online from 01/10/2011 to 26/10/2011 for part-I registration and 28/10/2011( up to 5.00 PM) for part-II registration at SSC website http://www.ssconline.nic.in or at http://sscregistration.sifyitest.com/

For complete details including syllabus/qualification/exam ceners/how to apply, please visit http://ssc.nic.in/whats%20new%20html/latest_news/IMD_Notice.pdf
OR see details -
PUBLISHED IN THE EMPLOYMENT NEWS / ROZGAR SAMACHAR DATED 1.10.2011

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

SYLLABUS
The details of the syllabus are given below.

Paper-I
(i) General Intelligence & Reasoning : The Syllabus for General Intelligence would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. The test may include questions on analogies, similarities, differences, space visualization, problem solving, analysis, judgement, decision making, visual memory, discrimination, observation, relationship concepts, arithmetical reasoning, verbal and figure classification, arithmetical number series etc. The test will also include questions designed to test the candidate‘s abilities to deal with abstract ideas and symbols and their relationships, arithmetical computations and other analytical functions.
(ii) Quantitative Aptitude:The questions will be designed to test the ability of appropriate use of numbers and number sense of the candidate. The scope of the test will be computation of whole numbers, decimals, fractions and relationships between numbers, Percentage, Ratio & Proportion, Square roots, Averages, interest, Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Alligation, Time and Distance, Time & Work, Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra & Elementary Surds, Graphs of Linear Equations, Triangle and its various Kinds of centers, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles, Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons, Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square base, Trigonometric ratio, Degree and Radian Measures, Standard Identities, Complementary angle, Heights and Distances, Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar diagram & Pie chart.

(iii) English Language & Comprehension: English grammar, Vocabulary, Spellings, Synonyms and Antonyms, Comprehension, Correct and incorrect usages, etc.
(iv) General Awareness: General, physical, geographical, topographical, economic and climatic features of India. Current events. Matters of everyday observation and experience on scientific aspects and reasoning. Basic topics of mathematics, Chemistry and Physics. History of India, its cultural heritage, freedom movement, salient feature of the Constitution of India. Economic and social aspect of the country and its people.
NOTE: Paper –I will consist of Objective Type Multiple Choice questions only. Answer-
sheets of Paper-II (Conventional Type) will be evaluated in respect of only
those candidates who qualify in Paper I at the standard as decided/fixed
by the Commission at its discretion.
Paper-II
a) Physics
Mechanics: Units and dimensions, SI UNITS, Newton‘s Laws of Motion, conservation of linear and angular momentum, projectiles, rotational motion, moment of inertia, rolling motion, Newton‘s Law of gravitation, Planetary motion, Kepler‘s Laws of Planetary motion, artificial satellites, Fluid motion, Bernoulli‘s theorem, Surface tension, Viscosity, Elastic Constants, bending of beams, torsion of cylindrical bodies, elementary ideas of special theory of relativity.
Thermal Physics, Radiation & Sound: Thermometry, Zeroth, first and second laws of thermodynamics, reversible and irreversible processes, Internal energy, Head engines, Maxwell‘s relation, ideal and real gases, equations of state, Heat Capacities, Adiabatic and Isothermal processes, Clausius-Clapeyron relation, Thermal Conductivity, Entropy, Enthalpy, Dalton‘s law of partial pressure, Vapour pressure, Kinetic theory of gases, Brownian motion, Maxwell‘s velocity distribution, Equipartition of energy, mean free path Vander walls‘ equation of State, Liquefaction of gases.
Blackbody radiation, Kirchhoff‘s law, Stephen‘s law, Planck‘s law. Conduction in solids.
Wave and Oscillations: Simple harmonic motion, wave motion, superposition principle, Damped oscillations; forced oscillations and resonance; simple oscillatory systems; vibrations of rods, strings and air columns. Doppler effect; Ultrasonic; Sabine‘s law of reverberation; Recording and reproduction of sound.
Optics: Nature and propagation of light; Refection & Refraction. Interference; diffraction; polarization of light; simple interferometers. Determination of wavelength of spectral lines, Electromagnetic spectrum. Rayleigh scattering, Raman effect, Lenses and mirrors, combination of coaxial thin lenses, spherical and chromatic aberrations, and their corrections, Microscope, Telescope, Eyepieces and Photometry.
Electricity and magnetism: Electric charges, fields and potentials, Gauss‘s theorem, Electrometers, Dielectrics, Magnetic properties of matter ad their measurement, Elemental theory of dia, para and ferro-magnetism, Hysteresis, Electric current and their properties, Ohm‘s law, Galvanometers, Whetstone‘s bridge and applications, Potentiometers, Faraday‘s law of E.M. induction, self and mutual inductance and their applications, alternating currents, impedance and resonance, LCR circuit, Dynamos, motors,
transformers, Peltier-Seebeck and Thomson effects and applications, electrolysis, Hall effect, Hertz experiment and electro-magnetic waves, Particle accelerators and cyclotron.

Atomic structure: Electron, measurement of ‗e‘ and ‗e/m‘, measurement of Planck Constant, Rutherford-Bohr Atom, X-rays, Bragg‘s law, Moseley‘s law, Radioactivity, Alpha-Beta-Gamma emission, Elementary ideas of nuclear structures, Fission, Fusion and Reactors, Louis de Broglie waves and Electron Microscope.
Electronics; Thermo-ionic emission, diodes and triodes, p-n diodes and transistors, simple rectifier, amplifier and oscillator circuits.
b) Computer Science and Information Technology
Computer: History of Computer and their classification, Basic Organization, Memory – RAM, ROM, EPROM, etc, Magnetic-Floppy, Hard disks, CDROM, WORM etc, Concept of Virtual Memory and Cache, Number systems, binary octal, Hexadecimal, Binary Addition, Subtraction and Multiplication, Flotation, point representation and arithmetic, Arithmetic through stacks.
Operating systems: assemblers, elements of Assembly language programming-Overview of the Assembly process, assembler for the IBM PC, Process synchronization, Memory Management – address Binding – dynamic Loading and linking – overlays – logical and Physical address space – Contiguous Allocation - internal & External Fragmentation. Non-Contiguous Allocation: Paging and Segmentation Schemes – Implementation – Harare Protection – Protection – sharing – Fragmentation.
Virtual Memory: Demand Paging – Page Replacement – Page Replacement algorithms – Thrashing.
File System: File Concepts – Assess Methods – Directory Structures – Protection Consistency Semantics – File system Structures – Allocation Methods – Free Space Management.
I/O System: Overview – I/O hardware – Application I/O Interface – Kernel I/O subsystem, Performance, Secondary Storage Structures, Protection, Goals, Domain – Access matrix.
Assemblers: Elements of assembly language programming – Overview of the Assembly process – Design of a low-pass Assembler – a single pass Assembler for the IBM PC. The security Problem – Authentication – Threats – Threat Monitoring – Encryption.
Fundamentals of programming: Unix Programming, lPro0gramming in FORTRAN, C, Object Oriented Programming in C++, programming in Java, Basics of compilers.
Database Management Systems: Advantages and components of a Database Management Systems, Data Types, Data Dictionary, Query Basics, Forms and Reports, Graphical objects, Error Handing, Distributing Application, Data Storage Methods, Data Clustering and Partitioning, Database Administration, Backup and Recovery, Security and Privacy, Distributed Databases, Client/Server Databases, Object Oriented Databases, Integrated Applications, SQL, RDBMS.
Internet Technology: Basics, topologies, layers, switching in the networks, bridges, routers and gateways, types of networks, WWW. Client/Server Applications, Internet Standards and specifications, ISP, Broad Band Technologies, Protocols, web-servers, browsers, and security, fire walls, date security, HTML, dHTML XML,Web designing.

Fundamentals of GIS: GIS Data and Spatial Models, Topology ad Spatial Operations, Projections, Scale and Coordinate Systems, Mapping, GIS Analysis, Cartography. Basics of GIS application development.
c) Electronics & Telecommunication
i) Electronics:
Conductors, Semi-conductors, Insulators, Magnetic, Passive components, characteristics of Resistors, Capacitors and inductors.
PN Junction diode, forward and reverse bias characteristics and equivalent circuits of diode, Zener diode and applications, clipping, clamping and rectifier circuits using diodes.
Bipolar Junction Transistors (BJT) Field Effect Transistor (FET) and MOSFET; Biasing ad stability, Emitter follower and its applications – Negatives feed back-Transistor as a switch, Multistage Amplifiers, Feedback, Oscillators, Multivibrators, Voltage regulation, Power amplifiers.
Introduction to Network Theorems: Kirchoff‘s laws, superposition, Thevenin‘s Norton‘s
And Maximum power theorems.
Voltage and Current relationship in the resistance, inductance and capacitance. Concept of reactance, susceptance, conductance, impedance and admittance in series and parallel RL, RC and RLC circuits – Three phase supply-star and delta connection diagrams – Relation between line and phase & voltages and currents, series and parallel resonance circuits – condition of resonance, resonant frequency, Q factor and bandwidth. Digital electronics – Logic gates, Demorgan‘s theorem, Boolean algebra, frequency counters, flip-flops, shift resistors, Basic concepts of Digital to Analog and Analog to Digital Converters, Timing circuits, Digital logic circuits, systems & codes Combinational logic design.
ii) Telecommunication:
Basic antenna principle directive gain, directivity, radiation pattern, broad-side and end-fire array, Yagi antenna , Parabolic antenna, Ground wave propagation, space waves, ionosphere propagation and electromagnetic frequency spectrum, Modulation, types of modulation, Amplitude Modulation (AM) , Modulation index, Power relation in AM, Generation and Demodulation of AM.
SSB: Power requirement in comparison with AM, Advantages of SSB over AM. Concept of Balanced Modulator, Generation of SSB, Pilot Carrier System. Independent Side System, Vestigial Sideband Transmission.
Frequency Modulation (FM): Definition of FM, Bandwidth, Noise triangle, Preemphasis and De-emphasis.
Pulse Modulation (PM): Definition of PM. Difference between AM and FM. Radio receivers. Sampling Theorem, PAM, PTM, PWM, PPM, pulse code modulation, Quantization noise, commanding, PCM system, differential PCM, Delta modulation.
Multiplexing: FDM/TDM.
Introduction of digital Communication: PSK, ASK, FSK, introduction to fiber optics system, Propagation of light in optical fiber and ray model.
Propagation of signals at HF, VHF, UHF and microwave frequency and satellite communications

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