Central Bank of India PO 2010 English Solved Question Paper

Central Bank of India PO 2010 English Solved Question Paper

Central Bank of India 2010 English Solved Question Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed inbold to help you locate them while answering some of the question.

A few weeks ago, a newspaper article quoted a well known scientist saying, “IT has destroyed Indian science”. One can speculate about the various ways in which the growth of the IT sector and other similar knowledge industries such as biotechnology has led to a decline in basic scientific research in India.

The most obvious reason is money; pay scales in IT and BT are much higher than one can aspire to in academia. The argument goes : why should abright B. Tech. or M.Sc. student enroll in a Ph.D. programme when she can make a lot more money writing code ? Not only does a fresh IT employee make a lot more than a fresh M.Tech. student, her pay will rise much faster in IT than in academia. A professor’s pay at a government-run university, even after the Sixth Pay Commission, tops out at far less than a senior executive's salary in a major industry.

Second, the social status of IT and BT jobs equal or even exceed the social status of corresponding academic positions, since they are seen as knowledge industries, which plays to best and worst instincts of the societal order. As quintessential white collar professions, neither do they compel a successful entrepreneur to resort to violence and corruption, nor do they demand any physical labour. Unlike real estate or road construction, it is felt that IT workers can become rich while staying honest and sweat-free.

Assuming that the labour pool for academia and IT is roughly the same, the difference in our collective preferences biases the labour market towards IT and away from academia. Further, when the imbalance between IT and academia continues for years and even decades, a destructive loop, from academia’s point of view, is created. When our best and brightest take IT jobs over academic ones for a decade or more, faculty positions in our universities and research centres are no longer filled by the best candidates.

As faculty quality goes down, so does the capacity to train top-class graduate students who, after all, are teachers in training. In response to decreasing faculty quality, even those students who would otherwise choose an academic profession, decide to join industry or go abroad for their studies. These foreign trained graduates prefer to come back to corporate India—if at all they do come back—and the downward cycle replicates itself in each generation. In other words, academia is trapped within a perfect storm created by a combination of social and economic factors.

In this socio-economic calculus, the members of our societal classes should prefer an IT job to an academic one. Or, to put it another way, the knowledge economy, i.e., the creation of knowledge for profit, trumps the knowledge society, i.e., the creation of knowledge for its own sake or the sake of the greater good. As is said, “knowledge is power, but money is even more power.” Perhaps the scientist was alluding to this victory of capitalism over the pursuit of pure knowledge when he accused IT of having a negative influence on Indian science.

Surely, knowledge has become a commodity like any other and as a result, knowledge workers are like any other labourers, who will sell their wares to the highest bidder. One solution is to accept and even encourage the commoditization of knowledge; if so, Indian universities and research centres should copy their western counterparts by becoming more and more like corporations. These centres of learning should convert themselves into engines of growth. In this logic, if we increase academic salaries and research grants to match IT paycheques we will attract good people into academia, where, in any case, it is rumoured that a certain elusive feeling called ‘the quality of life’ is better.

1. According to the passage, what did the scientist actually mean when he said, “IT has destroyed Indian Science ?”

(A) The centres meant for Scientific research are being utilized by IT industries

(B) The IT industry does not employ people pursuing higher studies

(C) As information is readily available on the internet because of IT, there is no need to seek further information

(D) IT has distorted the truth as stated by Indian science

(E) The desire for money has overshadowed the search for knowledge

Ans : (B)

2. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage ?

(A) Is the Future of IT Bright ?

(B) The IT Industry and the World Economy

(C) Research and Academics – Losing the Battle Against IT

(D) Scientific Research and the Need for Well – Trained Faculty

(E) Information Technology and its Advantages

Ans : (C)

3. Why does the author say that knowledge has become a commodity ?

(A) As it is no longer desirable in any professional field

(B) As there are too many educational institutes in the country which do not provide quality education

(C) As knowledge is now available easily as compared to the past

(D) As knowledgeable people sell their services for the highest price possible

(E) Like commodities knowledge too becomes stale after a certain period

Ans : (D)

4. What, according to the author, is a destructive loop ?

(A) Many people quit their existing jobs to work in the IT industry which in turn leads to the downfall of the other industries

(B) The fact that the best minds do not want to become teachers and this in turn leads to good students seeking knowledge elsewhere

(C) The fact that people working in the IT industry do not pursue higher studies which in turn leads to the deterioration in quality of employees

(D) The unending use of resources by the IT industry leading to a dearth of resources in the country

(E) Less grants are being provided by the Government to academic institutes which in turn leads to poor quality students joining the same

Ans : (C)

5. Which of the following mentioned below is/are the author’s suggestion/s to promote interest in Indian academia ?

(1) Research centres should adopt the corporate culture as is done in the West

(2) Lessening the number of research grants given

(3) Making academic salaries equivalent to those paid in IT industries.

(A) Only (3)

(B) Only (1)

(C) Only (2) and (3)

(D) Only (1) and (3)

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

6. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage ?

(1) It is believed that the quality of life is better when pursuing scientific research

(2) People currently seek knowledge only for the greater good of the society.

(3) Money is not perceived to be as powerful as knowledge.

(A) Only (1) and (3)

(B) Only (2)

(C) Only (1) and (2)

(D) Only (2) and (3)

(E) All (1), (2) and (3)

Ans : (D)

7. Which of the following, according to the author, are factors responsible for the declining interest in scientific research ?

(1) Slower progress of work in research

(2) Lesser monetary compensation in research related activities

(3) Societal perception towards research

(A) Only (1)

(B) Only (3)

(C) Only (2) and (3)

(D) Only (1) and 2)

(E) All (1), (2) and (3)

Ans : (C)

8. Which of the following is true about the perception towards IT jobs as given in the passage ?

(1) They are physically tiring.

(2) They are considered to be managerial level jobs.

(3) They require usage of dishonest means.

(A) Only (2)

(B) Only (1) and (2)

(C) Only (3)

(D) Only (2) and (3)

(E) All (1), (2) and (3) are true

Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 9–12) Choose the word/group of words which is MOST SIMILAR in MEANING to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. CAPACITY

(A) volume

(B) capability

(C) voltage

(D) quantity

(E) qualification

Ans : (B)

10. ALLUDING

(A) referring

(B) breaking

(C) escaping

(D) imposing

(E) clinging

Ans : (A)

11. SPECULATE

(A) visit

(B) contemplate

(C) remark

(D) argue

(E) regulate

Ans : (B)

12. QUINTESSENTIAL

(A) typical

(B) different

(C) necessary

(D) unique

(E) excellent

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 13–15) Choose the word/group of words which is MOST OPPOSITE in MEANING to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

13. BRIGHT

(A) soft

(B) dark

(C) dull

(D) vivid

(E) dim

Ans : (C)

14. ELUSIVE

(A) definite

(B) happy

(C) mysterious

(D) worthwhile

(E) remarkable

Ans : (A)

15. FRESH

(A) used

(B) stale

(C) tired

(D) experienced

(E) aged

Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the word/phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

16. The poor Brahmin led a hand to mouthful existence and could use any job which paid him a little—

(A) handful to mouthful existence

(B) hand to mouth existence

(C) handing for mouthful existing

(D) hand and mouth exist

(E) No correction required

Ans : (B)

17. In order earning decent living we need to have a good job which pays a substantial amount of money—

(A) earned decency life

(B) earning decency live

(C) earn a decent living

(D) earned decently life

(E) No correction required

Ans : (C)

18. We went to the famous restaurant to eat and were served piped hot food—

(A) served piping hotter

(B) serving pipe hot

(C) served piping hot

(D) serve pipe hotten

(E) No correction required

Ans : (C)

19. Akshay considered Suresh a complete pain in the neck as he kept asking baseless questions—

(A) paining in the neck

(B) painless neck

(C) painful necks

(D) pain in necking

(E) No correction required

Ans : (B)

20. I jump through hoop to finish this project in time but was not rewarded adequately—

(A) jumped through hoops

(B) jumping for hooping

(C) jumped on hoop

(D) jumping from hoop

(E) No correction required

Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Each question below has two blanks, each blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for each blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

21. Adding to a growing body of research …… cutting back on sweetened beverages it is now found that drinking …… sugary drinks may help lower blood pressure.

(A) for, all

(B) sustaining, increased

(C) against, lesser

(D) behind, more

(E) supporting, fewer

Ans : (E)

22. The blame game for the air tragedy is already in full …… with the authorities involved making attempts to …… for themselves.

(A) sway, defend

(B) view, try

(C) fledged, protect

(D) swing, cover

(E) roll, hide

Ans : (D)

23. The actress, wearing a dark gray suit and open necked shirt, sat …… the proceedings looking nervous throughout, occasionally frowning as her lawyer …… with the judge.

(A) through, spoke

(B) on, argued

(C) for, addressed

(D) with, discussed

(E) along, lectured

Ans : (B)

24. It was an excellent social evening with people from all ……… of life getting a chance to let their hair ………

(A) areas, drop

(B) realms, flow

(C) arena, undone

(D) walks, down

(E) types, loose

Ans : (D)

25. There can be no denying the fact that in sports, star coaches have the …… to get something extra out of their ………

(A) apprehension, work

(B) ability, teams

(C) fear, member

(D) capability, house

(E) desirous, players

Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following Six sentence (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them—

(1) It is therefore a contributing factor to the growth of landfills and waterway pollution, both of which are costly and energy intensive to solve.

(2) Making an effort to use those resources and avoid polystyrene ones can help to decrease your environmental impact.

(3) Non-biodegradable essentially means that any polystyrene that makes its way into a landfill will stay there indefinitely, never breaking down and returning to the earth.

(4) Polystyrene, as a product, is very convenient to use, but it has some important effects we should consider when making choices as consumers.

(5) While recycling polystyrene material can cushion the environmental blow of its use, alternatives are available that are created from renewable resources and biodegrade more readily.

(6) For example, while polystyrene has some excellent uses and is, technically, recyclable, it is not a substance that biodegrades.

26. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

(E) 5

Ans : (B)

27. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 5

(B) 6

(C) 1

(D) 4

(E) 2

Ans : (C)

28. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

(E) 5

Ans : (D)

29. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 5

(E) 6

Ans : (E)

30. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?

(A) 1

(B) 2

(C) 3

(D) 4

(E) 5

Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 31–40) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).

31. Sugar-sweetened drinks does not (A) /pose any particular health risk, and (B) / are not a unique risk factor (C) / for obesity or heart disease (D) No error (E)

Ans : (A)

32. Airline managements should note (A) / that the ultimate passenger unfriendliness (B) / is to have their planes crash (C) / due to the adopted of unsafe procedures (D) No error (E)

Ans : (D)

33. Celebrating its ten long years (A) / in the industry, a private entertainment channel (B) / announce a series of (C) / programmes at a press conference (D) No error (E)

Ans : (C)

34. The award ceremony ended (A) / on a note of good cheer (B) / with audiences responding warmly (C) / to its line up of film (D) No error (E)

Ans : (C)

35. The actress was ordered for (A) / wear an alcohol monitoring bracelet and (B) / submit to random weekly drug testing after (C) / she failed to appear for a court date last week (D) No error (E)

Ans : (A)

36. Coaches have the advantage of (A) / draw on their personal experiences (B) / and providing their players (C) / with unique inputs (D) No error (E)

Ans : (B)

37. The actor loves to think (A) / never enjoys stick to one kind of role (B) / and finds it difficult to (C) / fulfil everyone’s expectations (D) No error (E)

Ans : (B)

38. A major computer security firm urged (A) / the social networking site to set up (B) / an early-warning system after hundreds of users were (C) / hit by a new wave of virus attacks (D) No error (E)

Ans : (E)

39. The finding may help doctors (A) / to give more personalised care to patients (B) / and to modify the amount of powerful drugs (C) / administered over their patients (D) No error (E)

Ans : (D)

40. The actress made a rare appearance (A) / at the party and was (B) / overheard talking in (C) / her next big project (D) No error (E)

Ans : (C)

Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which ‘fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

Hundreds of plants and animals are (…41…) every-day due to deforestation and urbanization, what might happen if this continues in the future ? The last mass extinction of plant and animal species occurred 65 million years ago with the Dinosaurs. In all, five mass extinctions have occurred and scientists (…42…) earth is in the sixth mass extinction. The world as it is now is threatened, including people, who are responsible for earth’s (…43…). Pesticides contaminating water; overharvesting of animals and plants; air pollution; illegal fishing and the clearing of land are direct results of urbanization and deforestation. People have (…44…) and damaged almost half of earth’s land, at a very unsustainable rate.

Global warming is having a serious impact as well. A six-degree Celsius increase in global temperature killed 95% of all species on Earth 251 million years ago. An increase of six-degrees Celsius is forecast this century if a change is not made to (…45…) the damage done to earth. Humans will be one of the 95% of species lost. Noticeable changes of global warming include migration (…46…) and the change in season timings. Migrating birds are migrating earlier, which in turn is causing them to hatch eggs and (…47…) young earlier than they did at the beginning of this century. While this is just the tip of the iceberg, many other (…48…) regarding the extinction of plant and animal species need addressing. It is more important now than ever before to pull our heads out of the sand and make changes for the (…49…) of the earth. Future generations are (…50…), as they are a species as well.

41. (A) killing

(B) alive

(C) born

(D) left

(E) lost

Ans : (E)

42. (A) speak

(B) told

(C) estimation

(D) believe

(E) consider

Ans : (D)

43. (A) shape

(B) development

(C) deterioration

(D) warmth

(E) expansion

Ans : (C)

44. (A) altered

(B) created

(C) produced

(D) made

(E) brought

Ans : (A)

45. (A) void

(B) dissipate

(C) augment

(D) reverse

(E) increase

Ans : (D)

46. (A) delay

(B) birds

(C) slowdown

(D) hasten

(E) acceleration

Ans : (E)

47. (A) spare

(B) bear

(C) destroy

(D) amend

(E) generation

Ans : (B)

48. (A) animals

(B) difficulty

(C) issues

(D) humans

(E) problem

Ans : (C)

49. (A) extinction

(B) better

(C) wealth

(D) stigma

(E) demand

Ans : (B)

50. (A) endangered

(B) threaten

(C) evaluated

(D) living

(E) compared

Ans : (A)

CDAC Technical Question Paper 2011

CDAC Technical Question Paper 2011

1.Find which one of the following is correct?
a) !(p||q) !p || !q
b) !!!p = !p
c) p && q || r p && ( q || r )
d) nothing


2. find the output of the following program?
main()
{
static i = 3;
pringf("%d",i--)
return i >0 ? main():0;
}
ans:
a)333
b)321
c)111
d)error in the code


3.find the output of the following program?
main()
{
charp[] = "%dn";
p[1] = ’c’c;
printf(p,65);
}
ans:
a) 0
b) a
c) A
d) error in the code


4.which will return integer?
a) int*s ( )
b) ( int* ) s( )
b) int ( *s ) ( )


5.find the output of the following program?
char*myfunc(char*ptr)
{
ptr +=3;
return (ptr);
}
int main()
{
char*x,*y;
x="HELLO";
y=myfunc(x);
printf("y = %sn",y);
return 0;
}
ans:
a) HELLO
b) LLO
c) LO
d) L


6.find the output of the following program?
main()
{
int i = _1_abc(10);
printf("%dn",--i);
}
{
int_1_abc(int i)
{
return(++i);
}
ans:
a)10
b)11
c)9
d)error


7.In order to force derived class A to redefine a function a fun, void foo( )
how should A declare foo( )? http://www.ChetanaS.org
inline foo()
virtual voidfoo( ) = 0


8. which operator cant be overloaded?
ans:
a) &;
b) [ ] ;
c) :: ;
d) all the above;


8.If u allocate it as,
int *ptr = new int [ 25];
How will u deallocate it ?
ans:
a) delete *pint;
b) delete [ ] pint;
c) delete pint [25];
d) all ;


9. which virtual ?
a) constant;
b) static function;
c) return;
d) none;


10. How many times "hello world" will be printed?
void fun(int n)
{
int i;
for (i = 0; i < = n; i ++)
{
fun(n-i);
printf("hello world");
}
}
ans:
a)infinite
b)zero
c)one
d) n times

Airman Selection Test 2008 Solved Question Paper

Airman Selection Test 2008 Solved Question Paper

Airforce Entrance Exam Question Paper

Airman Selection Test 2008  Solved Question Paper

Group ‘X’ (Technical) Trades

Directions—(Q. 1 to 5) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.


Florence Nightingle was born in the year 1820 in a small town in Italy. Her parents were famous and rich. They looked after little Florence very carefully. But, Florence was thin and sickly.


One day little Florence said to her father, “father, I would like to be a nurse.” The little girl's father said, “My dear, I do not think you can be a nurse. Nursing is hard work.” “I will try, ” said Florence. Soon she began to learn nursing at home.


One day Florence was returning home early from school. On the way she saw a dog lying on the road. It was crying bitterly. An unkind boy hit the poor creature with a big stone. It hurt right leg and it was bleeding badly. Florence became very sad. She gently carried the dog home and nursed the wound. She tied a bandage tightly round the leg. In a week the dog was quite well. Soon the dog became friendly with Florence. It wagged its tail and jumped around her playfully and licked Florence all over, as if, it wanted to say, “Thank you, little nurse, thank you.”


1. Florence wanted to become—
(A) An animal lover
(B) A teacher
(C) A nurse
(D) An M.L.A.
Ans : (C)


2. When Florence expressed her desire to become a nurse her father ?
(A) Agreed readily
(B) Was very doubtful
(C) Kept silent
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)


3. On the way, she saw—
(A) An unkind boy hitting a dog
(B) A wounded dog lying on the road
(C) A dog limping across the road
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)


4. Florence nursed the wounded dog because—
(A) She wanted to be a nurse
(B) Her father told her to do so
(C) She felt pity for the dog
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)


5. The dog licked Florence all over to—
(A) clean her body
(B) express thanks
(C) show its anger
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)


Directions—(Q. 6 to 8) In each of the following questions choose the opposite in meaning—


6. Condemned
(A) Abandoned
(B) Shifted
(C) Acquiesced
(D) Taken in
Ans : (C)


7. Deny
(A) Renounce
(B) Confirm
(C) Controvert
(D) Disappear
Ans : (B)


8. Disparage
(A) Discredit
(B) Perceive
(C) Incline
(D) Approve
Ans : (D)


Directions—(Q. 9 to 11) In each of the following questions choose the same word in meaning—


9. Discretion
(A) Judiciousness
(B) Examine
(C) Assent
(D) Accede
Ans : (A)


10. Dreadful
(A) Propitious
(B) Auspicious
(C) Frightful
(D) Estranged
Ans : (C)


11. Exchanted
(A) Attracted
(B) Captivated
(C) Influenced
(D) Comprehended
Ans : (B)


Directions—(Q. 12 to 15) Choose the error and give its options from (A), (B), (C) and (D)—


12. It is not easy (A) / to beat out (B) / a swarm of (C) / wasps if they attack you. (D)
Ans : (B) beat off


13. I would (A) / do this (B) / if (C) / I was allowed. (D)
Ans : (D) were allowed


14. I asked (A) / him (B) / where (C) / did he live. (D)
Ans : (D) ‘he lived’ in place of ‘did he live’.


15. The soldiers (A) / as well as (B) / the commanders was (C) / running away. (D)
Ans : (C) ‘were’ in place of ‘was’


Directions—(Q. 16 to 20) Fill in the blanks with suitable options—


16. He hankers … money.
(A) over
(B) for
(C) after
(D) about
Ans : (C)


17. It was with considerable …… that we heard the news of his rescue.
(A) relieve
(B) reliefs
(C) relieves
(D) relief
Ans : (D)


18. He was accused … murder.
(A) for
(B) of
(C) with
(D) about
Ans : (B)


19. He is looking … his lost book.
(A) down
(B) into
(C) out
(D) for
Ans : (D)


20. Any activity which is prejudicial … law and order is punishable.
(A) for
(B) to
(C) from
(D) on
Ans : (B)


21. Average error of some measurement is—
(A) Arithmetic mean of the errors
(B) Arithmetic mean of the errors, leaving aside the errors’ signs
(C) Average of the squares of the errors
(D) Geometric mean of the errors
Ans : (B)


22. Number of significant figures in 0•00321 are—
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
Ans : (B)


23. In significant figures, the difference of 2•57 metres and 2•4 metres is—
(A) 0•17 m
(B) 0•70 m
(C) 0•2 m
(D) 0•485 m
Ans : (C)


24. E is the kinetic energy of an object, when it is projected at the maximum range of projection angle. At the highest point of its passage, its horizontal kinetic energy would be—
(A) E
(B) E/2
(C) E/3
(D) Zero
Ans : (B)


25. If some particle rotates on a circular path, the force that maintains it rotating uniformly is called—
(A) Centripetal force
(B) Atomic force
(C) Internal force
(D) Gravitational force
Ans : (A)


26. In a simple pendulum, isochronous length is equal to—
(A) Distance between centre of oscillation and centre of gravity
(B) Distance between the centre of suspension and centre of gravity
(C) Distance between the centre of suspension and centre of oscillation
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)


27. Distance between the two continuous antinodes of a stationary wave is—
(A) One wavelength
(B) Half wavelength
(C) Two wavelengths
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)


28. Two similar waves propagate in opposite directions in a medium—
(A) Absorb sound energy
(B) Create beats
(C) Create stationary waves
(D) Create resonance
Ans : (C)


29. Unit of reactance is—
(A) Ohm
(B) mho
(C) Farad (F)
(D) Ampere (A)
Ans : (A)


30. A hot-wire-ammeter measures the ……… of A.C. current—
(A) Peak value
(B) Average value
(C) Root average square current
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)


31. In a p-n junction—
(A) There are two semi-conductor junctions
(B) There are two metal junctions
(C) There is a metal semi-conductor junction
(D) There is a metallic super conductor junction
Ans : (A)


32. The particles obtained from thermionic emission are—
(A) Protons
(B) Electrons
(C) Neutrons
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)


33. In P-type semi-conductor, the main current carriers are—
(A) Electrons
(B) Holes
(C) Photons
(D) Protons
Ans : (B)


34. Dispersion of light is possible if and only if the medium is—
(A) Water
(B) Glass
(C) Water or glass
(D) Some transparent medium
Ans : (D)


35. Colour of light is identified with the—
(A) Speed of light in air
(B) Frequency
(C) Amplitude
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)


36. In a set of playing cards, there are 52 cards. From this set of cards, two cards are taken out, at random. The probability of both the cards to be ace will be—
(A) 1/221
(B) 1/111
(C) 25/4
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)

SSC CPO Sub Inspector General Awareness Solved Question Paper

SSC CPO Sub Inspector General Awareness Solved Question Paper

SSC CPO Sub Inspector General Awareness2009 Question Paper 

1. ‘India Today’ is—
(A) A staggering mass of problems
(B) Former British India minus Pakistan and Bangladesh
(C) A News magazine mainly devoted to current affairs
(D) The Union of India, a member of United Nations
Ans : (C)


2. The book ‘It was Five Past Midnight’ is on—
(A) Bhuj Earthquake
(B) Orissa Floods
(C) Andhra Cyclone
(D) Bhopal Gas Tragedy
Ans : (D)


3. Teen Bigha Corridor links—
(A) India and Pakistan
(B) India and China
(C) Bangladesh and Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh and India
Ans : (D)


4. What is the field in which outstanding work may be recognized with the award of Pulitzer Prize ?
(A) Science and Technology
(B) Literature and Journalism
(C) International Understanding
(D) Environmental Studies
Ans : (B)


5. Vijay Stambha at Chittor was built by—
(A) Maharana Pratap
(B) Rana Sangram Singh
(C) Rana Kumbha
(D) Rana Ratan Singh
Ans : (C)


6. The device used to change the speed of an electric fan is—
(A) Amplifier
(B) Regulator
(C) Switch
(D) Rectifier
Ans : (B)


7. Namdhapa National Park is in—
(A) Mizoram
(B) Manipur
(C) Tripura
(D) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans : (D)


8. Which scripture was called his ‘mother’ by Gandhiji ?
(A) Ramayana
(B) The New Testament
(C) Bhagwat Gita
(D) The Holy Quran
Ans : (C)


9. On which of the following rivers is the Tehri Hydropower Complex located ?
(A) Alaknanda
(B) Mandakini
(C) Dhauli Ganga
(D) Bhagirathi
Ans : (D)


10. Nobel Prize winning Indian Amartya Sen is known for his work in which area ?
(A) Physics
(B) Environmental Protection
(C) Chemistry
(D) Economics
Ans : (D)


11. Who has been crowned Miss Universe, 2008 ?
(A) Miss Japan
(B) Miss Venezuela
(C) Miss Philippines
(D) Miss Malaysia
Ans : (B)


12. Wholesale price based inflation rate in India reached its highest level in 13 years on 27th July, 2008. It was—
(A) 11•75 per cent
(B) 11•85 per cent
(C) 12•00 per cent
(D) 12•05 per cent
Ans : (D)


13. The French Open, 2009 Men’s Singles was won by—
(A) Roger Federer
(B) Rafael Nadal
(C) Bob Bryan
(D) Katarina Srebotnik
Ans : (A)


14. The venue of the Energy Summit, 2008 was—
(A) Jeddah
(B) Tehran
(C) Riyadh
(D) Tripoli
Ans : (A)


15. CTBT stands for—
(A) Continued Test Ban Treaty
(B) Continued Test Based Treatments
(C) Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty
(D) Commercial Test Based Tariff
Ans : (C)


16. Asia Cup, 2008 final was played between—
(A) India and Sri Lanka
(B) Pakistan and India
(C) Sri Lanka and Pakistan
(D) Bangladesh and India
Ans : (A)


17. For which one of the following, M. S. Dhoni was chosen for the year 2007 ?
(A) Arjun Award
(B) Dronacharya Award
(C) Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)


18. Full form of MCA is—
(A) Ministry of Company Affairs
(B) Master of Computer Application
(C) Member Chartered Accountant
(D) Master of Commerce and Arts
Ans : (B)


19. China has hosted the—
(A) XXIX Olympic Games
(B) XXVIII Olympic Games
(C) XXVII Olympic Games
(D) XXX Olympic Games
Ans : (A)


20. Rashtrapati Bhawan was designed by—
(A) Edward Stone
(B) Le Corbusier
(C) Edwin Lutyens
(D) Tarun Dutt
Ans : (C)


21. ‘The Quit India Movement’ was launched in 1942 in the month of—
(A) January
(B) March
(C) August
(D) December
Ans : (C)


22. Match the following—
Column-I
(A) Keshab Sen
(b) Dayanand Saraswati
(c) Atmaram Pandurang
(d) Syed Ahmad Khan
Column-II


1. Prarthana Samaj
2. Brahmo Samaj
3. Aligarh Movement
4. Arya Samaj
(A) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 4 1 3 2
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 3 2 4 1
Ans : (C)


23. Who was the first English President of the Indian National Congress ?
(A) George Yule
(B) William Wedderburn
(C) A. O. Hume
(D) Henry Cotton
Ans : (A)


24. Which one of the following personalities is known as ‘Grand Old Man of India’ ?
(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(B) Dadabhai Naoroji
(C) Motilal Nehru
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai
Ans : (B)


25. Who wrote Akbarnama ?
(A) Akbar
(B) Birbal
(C) Abul Fazal
(D) Bhagavan Das
Ans : (C)

26. The pledge for ‘Poorna Swaraj’ was taken at the Congress Session of—
(A) Calcutta
(B) Lahore
(C) Allahabad
(D) Madras
Ans : (B)


27. When was the Panchayati Raj System introduced in India ?
(A) 1950 A.D.
(B) 1945 A.D.
(C) 1959 A.D.
(D) 1962 A.D.
Ans : (C)


28. Who held the office of the Vice-President of India for two consecutive terms ?
(A) Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
(B) Mr. R. Venkataraman
(C) Dr. Shankar Dayal Sharma
(D) Mr. V. V. Giri
Ans : (A)


29. Which Amendment of the Indian Constitution inserted the two words—‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ in the Preamble ?
(A) 28th
(B) 40th
(C) 42nd
(D) 52nd
Ans : (C)


30. When there is a vacancy in the office of the President and the Vice President at the same time, the office is held temporarily by—
(A) A person nominated by both the Houses of Parliament
(B) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(C) The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) The Chief Justice of India
Ans : (D)


31. The Constitution of India came into force on—
(A) 26 January, 1950
(B) 26 January, 1952
(C) 15 August, 1948
(D) 26 November, 1949
Ans : (A)


32. Who was the first Woman Governor of a State in free India from out of the following ?
(A) Mrs. Sarojini Naidu
(B) Mrs. Sucheta Kriplani
(C) Mrs. Indira Gandhi
(D) Mrs. Vijay Laxmi Pandit
Ans : (A)


33. The Parliamentary Committee which scrutinises the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India is—
(A) Estimates Committee
(B) Select Committee
(C) Public Accounts Committee
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)


34. Fog is an example of—
(A) Gas dispersed in gas
(B) Liquid dispersed in gas
(C) Solid dispersed in gas
(D) Solid dispersed in liquid
Ans : (B)


35. Which from the following is a landlocked sea ?
(A) Timor Sea
(B) Arafura Sea
(C) Greenland Sea
(D) Aral Sea
Ans : (D)


36. Match the following—
Sea Ports
(A) Bhatkal
(b) Alleppey
(c) Kakinada
(d) Tuticorin
States
1. Kerala
2. Tamil Nadu
3. Karnataka
4. Andhra Pradesh
(A) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 2 4 1 3
Ans : (C)


37. Which one of the following represent the lines joining the places of equal rainfall ?
(A) Isohypses
(B) Isohalines
(C) Isobars
(D) Isohyets
Ans : (D)


38. Equator represents—
(A) Line joining North and South poles
(B) Imaginary line passing round the Earth midway between North & South poles
(C) A belt (ring) around the planet Saturn
(D) Axis of rotation of Earth
Ans : (B)


39. Global warming is expected to result in—
(A) Increase in level of sea
(B) Change in crop pattern
(C) Change in coast line
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)
40. Earth Summit (Save Earth) was sponsored by—
(A) UNESCO
(B) UNCED
(C) WHO
(D) UNICEF
Ans : (B)


41. If two commodities are complements, then their cross-price elasticity is—
(A) Zero
(B) Positive
(C) Negative
(D) Imaginary number
Ans : (C)
42. Opportunity cost of production of a commodity is—
(A) The cost that the firm could have incurred when a different technique was adopted
(B) The cost that the firm could have incurred under a different method of production
(C) The actual cost incurred
(D) The next best alternative output sacrificed
Ans : (D)
43. Surplus earned by a factor other than land in the short period is referred to as—
(A) Economic rent
(B) Net rent
(C) Quasi-rent
(D) Super-normal rent
Ans : (C)


44. Who is the Ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission ?
(A) Minister for Planning & Development
(B) Finance Minister
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Minister for Rural & Community Development
Ans : (C)


45. Which from the following is not true when the interest rate in the economy goes up ?
(A) Savings increases
(B) Lending decreases
(C) Cost of production increases
(D) Return on capital increases
Ans : (D)


46. Which one of the following is not a method of measurement of National Income ?
(A) Value Added Method
(B) Income Method
(C) Investment Method
(D) Expenditure Method
Ans : (C)


47. Labour Intensive Technique would get chosen in a—
(A) Labour Surplus Economy
(B) Capital Surplus Economy
(C) Developed Economy
(D) Developing Economy
Ans : (A)


48. Which one of the following would not constitute an economic activity ?
(A) A teacher teaching students in his class
(B) A teacher teaching students under Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan
(C) A teacher teaching his own daughter at home
(D) A teacher providing consultancy services from his residence
Ans : (C)


49. The Finance Commission—
(A) Draws up Five Year Plans
(B) Formulates Monetary Policy
(C) Recommends pay revision of Central Government Employees
(D) Adjudicates on the sharing of resources between Centre and the States
Ans : (D)

SSC Sub Inspector General Awareness Solved Paper


50. Net National Product of a country is—
(A) GDP minus depreciation allowances
(B) GDP plus net income from abroad
(C) GNP minus net income from abroad
(D) GNP minus depreciation allowances
Ans : (D)


51. Jaundice is caused due to the infection of—
(A) Brain
(B) Liver
(C) Kidney
(D) Spleen
Ans : (B)


52. The average heart beat rate per minute in a normal person is—
(A) 82
(B) 92
(C) 72
(D) 98
Ans : (C)


53. EEG records the activity of—
(A) Heart
(B) Lungs
(C) Brain
(D) Muscles
Ans : (C)


54. The colour of cow’s milk is slight yellow due to the presence of—
(A) Xanthophyll
(B) Riboflavin
(C) Ribulose
(D) Carotene
Ans : (D)


55. Which one of these is a communicat disease ?
(A) Diabetes
(B) Diphtheria
(C) Arthritis
(D) Cancer
Ans : (B)


56. The concertration of which of following decreases in anaemia ?
(A) Haemoglobin
(B) Collagen
(C) Hyoglobin
(D) Myosin
Ans : (A)


57. Which of the following diseases usually spreads through air ?
(A) Plague
(B) Typhoid
(C) Tuberculosis
(D) Cholera
Ans : (A)


58. Cereals are a rich source of—
(A) Starch
(B) Glucose
(C) Fructose
(D) Maltose
Ans : (A)


59. Aspirin is common name of—
(A) Salicylic Acid
(B) Salicylate
(C) Methyl Salicylate
(D) Acetyl Salicylic Acid
Ans : (D)


60. Small Pox is caused by—
(A) Rubeola Virus
(B) Variola Virus
(C) Varicella
(D) Myxovirus
Ans : (B)


61. Carbon monoxide is an inflammable gas. Which one of the following is also inflammable ?
(A) Helium
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Oxygen
(D) Hydrogen
Ans : (D)


62. Aerobic respiration process requires—
(A) Heat
(B) Water
(C) Oxygen
(D) Sunlight
Ans : (C)


63. Which one of the following metals does not react with water to produce Hydrogen ?
(A) Potassium
(B) Cadmium
(C) Sodium
(D) Lithium
Ans : (B)


64. Ozone consists of—
(A) Oxygen only
(B) Oxygen and Nitrogen
(C) Hydrogen and Carbon
(D) Oxygen and Carbon
Ans : (A)


65. Which of the following liquids has the least density ?
(A) Fresh water
(B) Salt water
(C) Petrol
(D) Mercury
Ans : (C)


66. Which of the following principle is used to produce ‘low-temperatures’ ?
(A) Super conductivity
(B) Joule-Kelvin effect
(C) Thermo-electric effect
(D) Adiabatic demagnetization
Ans : (D)


67. A photo-electric cell converts—
(A) Mechanical energy to electric energy
(B) Heat energy to mechanical energy
(C) Light energy to chemical energy
(D) Light energy to electrical energy
Ans : (D)


68. Two stones of different masses are dropped simultaneously from the top of a building—
(A) Smaller stone reaches the ground earlier
(B) Larger stone reaches the ground earlier
(C) Both the stones reach the ground at the same time
(D) Depends on the composition of the stone
Ans : (C)


69. Pulsars are—
(A) Stars moving towards the Earth
(B) Stars moving away from Earth
(C) Rapidly spinning stars
(D) High temperature stars
Ans : (C)


70. Biggest planet of solar system is—
(A) Earth
(B) Mars
(C) Saturn
(D) Jupiter
Ans : (D)


71. The ‘National School of Drama’ is situated in which of the following cities ?
(A) Mumbai
(B) New Delhi
(C) Bhopal
(D) Kolkata
Ans : (B)


72. When was our National Anthem first sung and where ?
(A) 24th January, 1950 in Allahabad
(B) 24th January, 1950 in Delhi
(C) 26th December, 1942 in Calcutta
(D) 27th December, 1911 in Calcutta
Ans : (D)


73. The ozone hole that has been detected lies in the atmosphere above—
(A) Arctic Ocean
(B) Antarctica
(C) India
(D) Alaska
Ans : (B)


74. Brain drain—
(A) Is a disease
(B) Refers to dropouts from educational and technical institutions
(C) Is fruitless expenditure of scientific and industrial research
(D) Refers to emigration of skilled persons
Ans : (D)


75. How many spokes are there in the Dharma Chakra of the National Flag ?
(A) 22
(B) 24
(C) 18
(D) 14
Ans : (B)