Indian Institute of Mass Communication IIMC 2011-2012 Admission

Indian Institute of Mass Communication IIMC 2011-2012 Admission 

Indian Institute of Mass Communication IIMC will conduct an entrance exam for admission 2011-2012 for various courses in Journalism.
Indian Institute of Mass Communication IIMC Selection Procedure

1. written examination
2. Group Discussion
3. interview.


Candidates who qualify the written examination are called for GD and interview.


Indian Institute of Mass Communication IIMC Courses Details


Post Graduate Diploma Courses


1. Journalism (English)
2. Journalism (Hindi)
3. Advertising and Public Relations
4. Radio & TV Journalism
5. Journalism (Oriya).


Eligibility criteria For Indian Institute of Mass Communication IIMC


1. Candidates needs bachelor's degree or equivalent from a recognized institute/university.
2. Age should be less than 25 years of age as on 1st August, 2011.


Final year of graduation Students can also apply for IIMC Admission .


Important Dates For IIMC Admission


Last date of submitting completed application forms Mid week of April, 2011


How to Apply For Indian Institute of Mass Communication IIMC Admission


Candidates can apply online through website www.iimc.nic.in. Read the instruction how to fill and send the completed application form.


Contact Details For IIMC


Indian Institute of Mass Communication
JNU New Campus
Aruna asif ali road
New Delhi – 110067
Ph – 26742920/60
Fax – 11-26742462
Website: www.iimc.nic.in 

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UCO Bank Numerical Ability 2011 Sample Question Paper

UCO Bank Numerical Ability Sample Question Paper


Sample Question Papers of UCO Bank


1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?
(a) 30 minutes(b) 25 minutes(c) 28 minutes(d) 34 minutes


2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?
(a) 4096(b) 8192(c) 512(d) 1024


3. Find the number missing at question mark:10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149
(a) 100(b) 103(c) 78(d) 128


4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from ‘Trivandrum’ and reaches ‘Attingal’ in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance?
(a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes


5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure?
(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6


6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18


7. One fourth percent of 180 is:
(a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 (d) 45


8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150


9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135 ……………
(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 14


10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?
(a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 17


11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is ………….
(a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400


12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?
(a) 204 (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210


13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?
(a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50


14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long?
(a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds


15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be …….
(a) 90 seconds (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds


16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?
(a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 40


17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work?
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6


18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers
(a) 5050 (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050


19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:
(a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m (d) 11m


20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 2


21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ……..
(a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3(c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 (d) No solution


22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?
(a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2


23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years?
(a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15%


24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5


25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM
(a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400


26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in
(a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes(c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes


27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats
(a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes


28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:
(a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300


29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them?
(a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days


30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?
(a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27


31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?
(a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 %


32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is:
(a) 7,200m2 (b) 15,000m2 (c) 54,000m2 (d) 13,500m2


33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number?
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0


34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks?
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450


35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the
(a) Interior of the triangle(b) Midpoint of the diameter(c) Exterior of the triangle(d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle


36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?
(a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180


37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?
(a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre
38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height?
(a) 3r (b) 4r (c) v5r (d) v3r


39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?
(a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6


40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3v2, 6, 6v2 ?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) v2 (d) v3


41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45


42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?
(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr


43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?
(a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 32


44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.
(a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm (d) 42 sq.cm
45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, ……
(a) 81 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57


46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:
(a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30


47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 21


48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30
(a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750


49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?
(a) 306 (b) 765 (c) 700 (d) 510


50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:
(a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 31


Answers
1-A, 11-B, 21-C, 31-D, 41-A, 2-B, 12-A, 22-B, 32-D, 42-A, 3-A, 13-D, 23-A, 33-B, 43-B, 4-B 14-D, 24-C, 34-D, 44-C, 5-C, 15-A , 25-B, 35-C, 45-A, 6 -B, 16-C, 26-A, 36-D, 46-C, 7-C, 17-D, 27-B, 37-B, 47-B, 8-D, 18-A, 28-D, 38-C, 48-D, 9-C, 19-C, 29-C, 39-C, 49-B, 10-B, 20-B, 30-B, 40-C, 50-B

Punjab National Bank Agriculture Officers Exam. 2009 Solved Paper

Punjab National Bank Agriculture Officers Exam. 2009 Solved Paper

Professional Knowledge (Economics)

1. Say’s Law of Markets states that—

(A) Demand creates its own supply

(B) Supply creates its own demand

(C) Demand creates its own demand

(D) Supply creates its own supply

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

2. Malthusian theory of population is based on—

(A) Harmonic progression of population

(B) Geometric progression of food production

(C) Arithmetic progression of population

(D) Geometric progression of population

(E) All of the above

Ans : (D)

3. Gresham’s Law states that—

(A) Good money drives bad money out of circulation

(B) Bad money drives good money out of circulation

(C) Both good money and bad money may co-exist

(D) Neither bad money nor good money may be long in circulation

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

4. The on-going melt down had its origin in—

(A) The real sector

(B) The financial sector

(C) The service sector

(D) The textile sector

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

5. A competitive firm maximizes its profit when—

(A) MR = AR

(B) MR = MC

(C) MC = AC

(D) MC = AR

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

6. ‘Supernormal’ profit may exist in a market due to—

(A) Asymmetry of information

(B) Restriction of information

(C) Quantity restriction

(D) Price restriction

(E) All the above

Ans : (A)

7. Profit is caused by—

(A) Dynamic element in the economy

(B) Innovation

(C) Windfall

(D) All of the above

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

8. Interest is paid—

(A) To compensate for inflation

(B) Due to superiority of present over future goods

(C) Because demand for money outstrips its supply

(D) To ensure the growth of the real sector

(E) All the above

Ans : (B)

9. Investment is defined as a—

(A) Deployment of a sum in business operations

(B) Purchasing an interest bearing bond

(C) Change in the stock of capital

(D) All the above

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

10. The unproductive expenditure of the rich is—

(A) Necessary to the employment of the poor

(B) An impediment to the growth of an economy

(C) Having no bearing on the economy

(D) Having bearing only on the economy of the rich

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

11. Heckscher-Ohlin theory explains—

(A) Pattern of trade in terms of relative factor endowments of countries

(B) Why a country may import products which use extensively the country’s scarce factor

(C) The law of comparative cost

(D) The concept of reciprocal demand

(E) All the above

Ans : (A)

12. ‘Quasi-rents’—

(A) Are in the nature of free gifts

(B) May be applicable to all factors of production

(C) Comprise of all the returns to the firm in excess of the returns of the marginal firm

(D) All the above

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

13. The indifference curve technique is essentially—

(A) A cardinal approach

(B) An ordinal approach

(C) A quasi-ordinal approach

(D) All the above

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

14. The slope of an indifference curve expresses—

(A) The marginal rate of substitution of two goods

(B) A ratio of marginal utility of one good to another

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) A ratio of total utility of one good to another

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

15. ‘Pass through’ effect in international trade theory refers to—

(A) The proportion of an exchange rate change that is reflected in export and import price change

(B) Exports and imports not facing any tariff barrier

(C) Exports and imports not facing any technical barrier

(D) All of the above

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

16. Uruguay Round of multilateral trade negotiations—

(A) Started in 1986 and completed at the end of 1993

(B) Aimed at reversing the rising trend of non-tariff trade barriers

(C) Replaced the GATT with WTO

(D) Brought services and agriculture into WTO

(E) All of the above

Ans : (E)

17. Product Cycle Model in international trade theory (Vernon, 1966)—

(A) Is an extension of technological gap model

(B) Is an extension of Heckscher-Ohlin model

(C) Explains dynamic comparative advantage of new products and new processes of production

(D) All of the above

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

18. Hedging and speculation in forex markets—

(A) Are opposite activities

(B) Parallel activities

(C) Same activities

(D) All of the above

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

19. A currency swap refer to—

(A) A spot sale of currency combined with a forward repurchase of the same currency—as part of single transaction

(B) A forward sale of currency combined with a forward repurchase of the same currency—as part of a single transaction

(C) A forward sale of currency combined with a forward repurchase of the same currency—in two different transactions

(D) All of the above

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

20. Public-Private Partnership projects in India are mostly related to—

(A) Airports

(B) Ports

(C) Railways

(D) Roads

(E) Urban development

Ans : (D)

21. The largest share in the short term money market of India in recent times belonged to the segment—

(A) Collaterised Borrowing and Lending Obligation (CBLO)

(B) Traditional repo

(C) Clearcorp Repo Over Matching System (CROMS)

(D) Call

(E) Others

Ans : (D)

22. As per the revised estimate of CSO, the GDP in India at factor cost during 2008-09 was—

(A) Rs. 28,71,120 crore

(B) Rs. 31,29,717 crore

(C) Rs. 33, 39,375 crore

(D) Rs. 44,82,436 crore

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

23. Mid Day Meal Scheme—

(A) Is a centrally funded and largest school meal scheme in the world

(B) Provides each child in government and government aided school a minimum of 300 calories and 8–12 gm of protein each day of school for a minimum of 200 days

(C) Provides lunch to about 120 million children

(D) All of the above

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

24. Insurance penetration is defined as the—

(A) Ratio of premium underwritten in a year to GDP

(B) Ratio of premium underwritten in a year to total population

(C) Ratio of insurance subscribers in a year to total population

(D) Ratio of total number of policy holders in a year to total population

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

25. Insurance density is defined as the—

(A) Ratio of premium underwritten in a year to GDP

(B) Ratio of premium underwritten in a year to total population

(C) Ratio of insurance subscribers in a year to total population

(D) Ratio of total number of policy holders in a year to total population

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

26. Minimum Support Prices of crops are recommended by—

(A) Planning Commission of India

(B) Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)

(C) Finance Commission of India

(D) Farmers’ Commission of India

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

27. The Electricity (Amendment) Act 2007—

(A) Dispensed with licence requirement for sale from captive units

(B) Provided for joint effort by the Central and State governments for providing access to all areas including villages and markets

(C) Expanded the definition of theft to cover the use of tampered meters

(D) All of the above

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

28. In times of slowdown of the economy, the fiscal policy influences aggregate demand through—

(A) Discretionary element

(B) Non-discretionary element

(C) Lowering of tax rates

(D) All of the above

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

29. Thirteenth Finance Commission is headed by—

(A) Dr. Rangarajan

(B) Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar

(C) Dr. Suresh Tendulkar

(D) Dr. C. H. Hanumantha Rao

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

30. A constitutionally recognized body is—

(A) Planning Commission

(B) Finance Commission

(C) Forward Commission

(D) Farmers Commission

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

31. Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana was launched by GOI in August 2007 with the objective(s) of—

(A) To incentivise the states to increase public investment in agriculture and allied sectors

(B) To ensure that local needs/crops/priorities are better reflected

(C) To achieve the goal of reducing the yield gaps in important crops

(D) All of the above

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

32. The Buffer Stock of foodgrains at the beginning of February 2009 stood at—

(A) 16•2 million tonnes

(B) 20•0 million tonnes

(C) 37•4 million tonnes

(D) 36•2 million tonnes

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

33. Public Private Partnership came to be introduced in India to—

(A) Mitigate the financial burden of the governments

(B) Respond to the technological change that allow unbundling of infrastructure

(C) Alter the character of goods and services from pure public to private ones

(D) All of the above

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

34. Heteroscedasticity in econometric analysis means—

(A) The variance for each disturbance term (Vi) is the same for all i’s

(B) The variance for each disturbance term (Vi) is not the same for all i’s

(C) The co-variance for each pair of disturbance term is the same

(D) The co-variance for each pair of disturbance term is not the same

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

35. Autocorrelation in econometric analysis refers to—

(A) The correlation between the values of different variables

(B) The correlation between the values of alternative variables

(C) The correlation between successive values of the same variable

(D) All of the above

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

36. Durbin-Watson Test is applied in econometric models to test—

(A) Presence of heteroscedasticity in a model

(B) For autocorrelated errors in the sample data

(C) For multicorrelinearity

(D) For autoregressive disturbances

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

37. A weakly stationary stochastic process is so called, if—

(A) Its mean and variance are constant over time

(B) The value of covariance between two time periods depends only on lag between two time periods

(C) The value of covariance does not depend on the actual time at which the covariance is computed

(D) All the above

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

38. Dummy variables are used in regression models—

(A) To represent important variables that are not qualitatively measurable

(B) To capture the effect of specific attributes

(C) As binary variables

(D) To distinguish between two groups of population

(E) All of the above

Ans : (C)

39. Principal components in econometric analysis—

(A) Are linear combinations

(B) Help to increase the degrees of freedom

(C) Help to reduce high degree of multicorrelinearity

(D) All of the above

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

40. If world population grows at 2•6 per cent, then it will double in—

(A) 44•34 years

(B) 36•92 years

(C) 29•32 years

(D) 26•66 years

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

Punjab National Bank Previous Year Solved Papers / Books