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Tuesday, October 18, 2011

I.D.B.I. Assistant Manager Previous Year General and Financial Awareness Solved Paper

I.D.B.I. Assistant Manager Previous Year General and Financial Awareness Solved Paper

1. The present Cash Reserve Ratio is—

(A) 5%

(B) 5•5%

(D) 6•5%

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

2. One of the objectives of KYC (Know Your Customer) norms is—

(A) to give boost to bank deposits

(B) to safeguard banks advances

(D) to help income tax authorities to collect income tax

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

3. Contribution to Prime Minister's relief fund enjoys Income Tax benefit up to—

(A) 50% under section 80G

(B) 75% under section 80G

(D) 100% under section 88

(E) No exemption is available

Ans : (C)

4. Which of the following activities are expected to be performed by the Business correspondents ?

(A) Disbursal of small value credit

(B) Collection of small value deposits

(D) All the three above

(E) Only (B) and (C) above

Ans : (E)

5. Tax at source by banks is deducted on interest paid on term deposits in the interest amount in a financial year exceeds—

(A) Rs. 3,000

(B) Rs. 5,000

(D) Rs. 15,000

(E) There is no such provision

Ans : (B)

6. Securitisation and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of security Interest Act relates to—

(A) Sanction of loans

(B) Enhancement of loan limits

(D) All the above

(E) None of above

Ans : (C)

7. MSMED Act is applicable to—

(A) Smalls enterprises only

(B) Medium enterprises only

(D) Micro, Small and Medium enterprises

(E) All enterprises irrespective of their size engaged in manufacturing activity

Ans : (D)

8. Money Laundering refers to—

(A) Conversion of assets into cash

(B) Conversion of Money which is illegally obtained

(D) Conversion of gold into cash

(E) None of the above

Ans : (B)

9. The Monetary and Credit Policy is reviewed by the RBI after a gap of—

(A) one year

(B) one month

(D) five years

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

10. PPF account is opened for a period of—

(A) 5 years

(B) 10 years

(D) 20 years

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

11. Yuan is the currency of—

(A) Japan

(B) China

(D) Myanmar

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

12. National savings certificate matures at the end of—

(A) Six years

(B) Three years

(D) Five years

(E) Five and half years

Ans : (A)

13. Normally Bank accept Fixed Deposits for a maximum period of—

(A) 5 years

(B) 3 years

(D) 20 years

(E) Any number of years

Ans : (E)

14. Code of banks commitment to Micro and Small enterprises is prepared by—

(A) RBI

(B) SEBI

(D) BCSBI

(E) Ministry of Small and Medium Enterprises

Ans : (E)

15. Which one of the following is not a salient feature of debit card ?

(A) No bad debts to banks and no suits for recovery

(B) No interest earning for banks

(D) All the above

(E) 45 dayes credit is given to the card holder

Ans : (E)

16. IFRS stands for—

(A) International Financial Reporting standards

(B) Indian Financial Rating Standards

(D) All the three above

(E) None of the above

Ans : (A)

17. What is the present Repo Rate ?

(A) 5%

(B) 5•5%

(D) 6•5%

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

18. There are certain financial instruments whose prices are derived from the price of the underlying currency of interest rate or stocks etc. These are known as—

(A) Derivatives

(B) Securitisation

(D) Factoring

(E) Venture Capital Funding

Ans : (A)

19. What is the full form of ASBA ?

(A) Allotment supported by Blocked Amount

(B) Application supported by Blocked Amount

(D) Allotment supported by Bank Account

(E) None of the above

Ans : (B)

20. Reverse Repo is used by RBI to—

(A) Inject liquidity

(B) Absorb liquidity

(D) Keep the liquidity at one level

(E) None of the above

Ans : (D)

21. Which of the following is not considered as lending under infrastructure sector ?

(A) A Highway project

(B) Construction of Educational Institution

(D) Laying down of petroleum pipelines

(E) None of the above

Ans : (E)

22. KYC guidelines have been framed on the recommendations/as per guidelines of—

(A) Reserve Bank of India

(B) Ministry of Finance

(D) Financial Action Task Force

(E) Ministry of Home affairs

Ans : (A)

23. The term ‘Power of Attorney’ refers to—

(A) Power of a person

(B) An authority to operate a Bank account

(D) All of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans : (C)

24. What is the amount of compensation to be paid per day, as per RBI directives in case of failed ATM transactions ?

(A) Rs. 50

(B) Rs. 100

(D) Rs. 500

(E) It is at the discretion of each Bank

Ans : (B)

25. Financial Action Task Force has an office in India at which place ?

(A) Mumbai

(B) Chennai

(D) New Delhi

(E) All the above places

Ans : (D)

26. Bridge loans refer to—

(A) Loans granted to contruction companies for construction of bridges

(B) Loan granted to PWD for construction of bridges over Rivers

(D) All of the above

(E) None of the above

Ans : (C)

27. Payment of Demand Draft can be stopped by—

(A) Payee

(B) Holder

(D) All of these

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

28. Can any one file an appeal against the order passed by the Banking Ombudsman ? If so who is the Appellate Authority ?

(A) The Chairman of concerned Bank

(B) The Deputy Governor RBI

(D) Finance Minister

(E) None of the above

Ans : (B)

29. For which one of the following reasons, the Government has approved a plan to infuse Rs. 15,000 crore capital into PSBs ?

(A) To boost their lending capacity

(B) To maintain minimum CRAR as per Basel II norms

(D) To strengthen the Balance Sheet of banks

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

30. What is monetary policy transmission ?

(A) It refers to monetary policy of Central Bank

(B) It refers to fiscal policy of Government

(C) It refers to various channels through which the monetary policy of a Central Bank alters prices or output in the real economy

(D) It refers to various channels through which the fiscal policy of the Government alters prices or output in the real economy

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

31. On which one of the following issue IMF has supported monetary policy of India ?

(A) Tightening of monetary policy

(B) Stimulus for agriculture sector

(D) Introduction of GST

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

32. The advantage of convenience in credit card operations is for—

(A) Customer

(B) Members Establishments

(D) All the above

(E) None of the above

Ans : (D)

33. Under provisions of which one of the following Acts, CAs/CS have been told to report all suspicious fund trasnfers ?

(A) RBI Act

(B) Banking Regulation Act

(D) Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

34. Bancassurance is—

(A) an insurance scheme to insure bank deposits

(B) an insurance scheme exclusively for the employees of banks

(D) a bank deposits scheme exclusively for employees of insurance companies

(E) None of the above

Ans : (C)

35. In the term STRIPS, the first letter ‘S’ denotes—

(A) Separate

(B) Small

(D) Savings

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

36. Which of the following organizations, provide credit history of the borrowers ?

(A) CIBIL

(B) SEBI

(D) CRISIL

(E) IBA

Ans : (A)

37. Loans/advances to farmers is treated as—

(A) Personal Loans

(B) Priority Sector Loan

(D) Corporate Loan

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

38. Which one of the following Organisations maintains CRR ?

(A) RBI

(B) SEBI

(D) IBA

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

39. When the loan is granted for purchase of white goods it is called—

(A) Consumption loan

(B) White goods loan

(D) All the above

(E) None of the above

Ans : (C)

40. Which one of the following is the objective of Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act ?

(A) To provide 100 days employment to people in rural areas

(B) To provide employment to educated youth

(D) To create more valuable rural assets

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

41. Structure of Basel II is based on how many pillars ?

(A) Two

(B) Three

(D) Eight

(E) Six

Ans : (B)

42. With which one of the following ‘Channel Financing’ is associated ?

(A) Retail Lending

(B) Corporate Lending

(D) Supply Chain Finance

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

43. Expand the term FRBM—

(A) Financial Responsibility and Business Management

(B) Fiscal Responsibility and Business Management

(D) Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

44. A customer can approach Banking ombudsman if he does not get satisfactory response to his grievance from the bank within how many days ?

(A) 10 days

(B) 20 days

(D) 30 days

(E) 60 days

Ans : (D)

45. Which one of the following country is in talks with EU and International Monetary Fund, to exit from debt crisis ?

(A) Spain

(B) Turkey

(D) Greece

(E) Finland

Ans : (D)

46. For achieving 8•5 percent GDP growth in fiscal 2010-11, which one of the following should be percent growth in farm sector ?

(A) 2•0

(B) 2•5

(D) 4•0

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

47. According to a report submitted by IMF in its World Economic Outlook, which one of the following countries will have highest percent GDP growth rate in 2011 ?

(A) China

(B) India

(D) Russia

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

48. Which one of the following has given ‘Aadhaar’ as its new brand name ?

(A) UIDAI

(B) Sports Ministry, GOI

(D) NHAI

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

49. Which of the following will help poor to come out of their poverty ?

1. Good Health Service

2. Freedom from illiteracy

3. Optimum Sex Ratio

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(D) Only 3

(E) All 1, 2 and 3

Ans : (E)

50. Which one of the following is per cent Bank Rate ?

(A) 4•0

(B) 4•5

(D) 3•33

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

UCO Bank PO Exam 2006 English Language Solved Paper

UCO Bank PO Exam 2006 English Language Solved Paper

UCO Bank English Solved Question Paper

Qs. 1-15. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate hem while answering some of the questions. For a business still in a burgeoning state of development the performance of the gem and jewelry sector in exports s gratifying. On top of an over 50 per cent growth during 2004-05, these exports are poised to grow at a similar rate during the current year, if the trend in the irst half of the year is an indication. Data released by the Gems and Jewelry Export Promotion Council show that Gems exports at Rs 2,363 crores during April- eptember 2005 were 51 per cent higher than during the corresponding period of 2004. Since there is a greater acceleration in the tempo of exports in the econd half of the year, it appears that the target of Gems and Jewelry exports, pegged at Rs 5,000 crore is well within reach. Even more heartening is the fact that the xport flow has been broad based, though the pace has been set by better showing in both Jewelry and Gem exports.

This successful incursion is the outcome of a conscious strategy to build export infrastructure which includes the setting up of Gems and Jewelry export zones, echnology missions and a liberal policy under which virtually the entire industry is thrown open to foreign direct investment. Some incentives like access to omestic market for these export-oriented units, based on the net value addition, also have helped the export drive. Besides, the industry had made efforts to apture new markets, laid stress on quality of the product and became alive to customer needs.

However, in the case of jewelry exports, the actual performance is behind the potential. With its endowment in terms of jewelry designers, low costs and high roductivity, India can emerge as a major force in global jewelry exports by emphasizing on customizing jewelry rather than relying on standard products. At the ame time, gems exports should not suffer by default. The recent data given lie to the claim that we have a leeway in jewelry designing. Over a period, this uccess on global marketing of our gems should facilitate system integration, and to exports of value-added gems with jewelry. As of now, what is significant is that we ave carved a small niche in the global market in an industry that is the cutting edge of designing.

1. Which of the following are responsible for substantial growth n exports in Gems and jewelry sector?
(A) Conscious strategy to build export infrastructure
(B) Liberal policy
(C) Government subsidy
(1) All (A), (B) and (C) (2) Only (B) and (C) (3) Only (A) and (C) (4) Only (A) and (B) (5) None of these

2. Setting up of gems and jewelry exports zones has resulted into which of the following?
(1) Production of gems has increased
(2) Increase in gems exports
(3) Increase in jewelry exports
(4) Abundance of gems and jewelry in the domestic market
(5) None of these

3. Which of the following words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘heartening’ as used in the passage?
(1) Saddening (2) Encouraging (3) Illuminating
(4) Satisfying (5) Worsening

4. Which of the following have helped in the growth of exports in gem and jewelry sector?
(A) Value addition
(B) Quality control
(C) Customer friendly
(D) Access to domestic market
(1) All (A), (B), (C) and (D) (2) Only (A), (B) and (C)
(3) Only (B), (C) and (D) (4) Only (A), (C) and (D) (5) None of these

5. Which of the following statements is true in the context of the passage?
(1) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 100 per cent during 2005-2006 to that of 2004-05.
(2) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector in 2005-2006 is expected to be more than that in 2004- 05.
(3) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 50 per cent in 2005-2006.
(4) The growth in exports in gems and jewelry sector is expected to be 25 per cent in 2005-2006.
(5) None of these

6. Which of the following factors have not helped in the export promotion?
(A) Building an infrastructure for export
(B) Encouraging foreign direct investment
(1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Either (A) or (B)
(4) Both (A) and (B) (5) None of these

7. How much export was realized in the first half of the year 2005-2006?
(1) Less than half the targeted amount.
(2) More than half the targeted amount.
(3) Almost half of the amount projected for the purpose.
(4) The exact amount is not mentioned.
(5) None of these

8. Which of the following words/group of words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘customizing’ as used in the passage?
(1) Need based (2) Supportive (3) Appropriate
(4) Quality (5) Traditional

9. Which of the following words has the SAME meaning as the word ‘alive’ as used in the passage?
(1) Awake (2) Open (3) Conducive
(4) Active (5) Brisk

10. Which of the following statements is not true according to the passage?
(1) India’s performance in exports of jewelry is better than that of gems.
(2) India’s performance in export of gems is better than that of jewelry.
(3) India’s performance in value added exports has grown in the recent past.
(4) India has made considerable effort in exporting value added products in the international market.
(5) Performance in global marketing has helped in developing an edge in designing.

11. What according to the passage, is the basis for the expectation of the exports in Gem and jewelry sector reaching the targeted amount?
(1) Growth in exports in the earlier year.
(2) Domestic demand in the sector.
(3) India’s performance in jewelry designing.
(4) Trend observed during the first half of the year.
(5) None of these

Qs. 12-13. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold used in the passage. 12. Emerge
(1) Drawn (2) Evolve (3) Shine
(4) Grow (5) Submerge

13. Conscious
(1) Desirable (2) Deliberate (3) Planned
(4) Unconscious (5) Wanted
Qs. 14-15. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

14. Virtually
(1) Artificially (2) Lately (3) Really
(4) Imaginary (5) Realistically

15. Burgeoning
(1) Emerging (2) Established (3) Dying
(4) Sneaking (5) Middle
Qs. 16-20. Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the eustions given below them.
(A) The Central government is weighing several options to involve the States in the process of boosting the country’s exports.
(B) These governments hitherto felt that exports are the Centre’s responsibility, which was a wrong approach.
(C) The States will now realize that they should themselves encourage export-oriented units.
(D) This move by the Centre is also necessitated to eradicate the misunderstanding that prevails among most of
the States.
(E) It is a welcome move to instill into governments the feeling of belongingness.
(F) Exports help flourish a country’s economic situation.

16. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

17. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

18. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

19. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

20. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

Qs. 21-30. Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (5) i.e. ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any).

21. The number of students(1) competing in the event(2) has been fallen(3) because of want of incentive.(4) No error.(5)

22. I am grateful to you(1) and all your friends(2) by extending required help(3) in my hour of need.(4) No error.(5)

23. Ramesh has been both(1) an intelligent(2) and hardworking chap(3) since his childhood.(4) No error.(5)

24. A small piece(1) of bread is(2) certainly better than(3) being nothing to eat.(4) No error.(5)

25. It was clear from the way(1) they were moving(2) that everyone possessed(3) the required experience.(4) No error.(5)

26. The fact that he(1) can not be able to sing(2) is known only(3) to very few people.(4) No error.(5)

27. That boy has(1) three precious objects,(2) and he would not(3) part for any one of them.(4) No error.(5)

28. When he used to walk(1) along the road(2) a wild and ferocious dog(3) knocked him down.(4) No error.(5)

29. Though he was(1) not relating to me,(2) I helped him by(3) giving money and a profitable advice.(4) No error.(5)

30. People who are(1) fortunate enough to own(2) a house in the city(3) are very few.(4) No error.(5)

Qs. 31-40. Which of the phrases (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make the sentence rammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark(5) as the answer.

31. When do you intend to return back home?
(1) intend to return
(2) intention of returning to back
(3) intend to turn back for (4) intend for a return of
(5) No Correction Required

32. I would have been in your place, I would not have accepted his suggestion.
(1) If I had in (2) Had I been with
(3) I had been with (4) Had I been in
(5) No Correction Required

33. He firmly beliefs that a radical change in the structure of our various departments is necessary.
(1) is believing that (2) firmly believes that
(3) firmly belief that (4) that firmly believes in
(5) No Correction Required

34. Mahatma Phule’s life was a saga of dedicating in the cause of social reforms in India.
(1) of dedicated the (2) of having dedicated in the
(3) of dedication to the (4) for dedication at the
(5) No Correction Required

35. No sooner did we reach the station than it started raining.
(1) then it started raining (2) then it starts to rain
(3) than it starts to rain (4) when it started raining
(5) No Correction Required

36. I met him yesterday but forgot to mention this point.
(1) had been forgotten to (2) was forgot to
(3) have forgotten to (4) forgot at
(5) No Correction Required

37. Every activity can be classified by two groups, namely mental and physical.
(1) will be classified by (2) can be classified into
(3) will be classified between (4) can classify into
(5) No Correction Required

38. The issues discussed had been so that critical they could hardly be resolved in such a limited time.
(1) were so critically that (2) had so critical that
(3) were being so critical as that
(4) were so critical that (5) No Correction Required

39. The Conference is to be starting at 9.30 a.m. with the introductory speech by the Minister.
(1) is to start for (2) has been started by
(3) is to start at (4) will be started by
(5) No Correction Required

40. The unskilled class of workers is the most exploited of class under the present labour contract system.
(1) most exploited class (2) mostly exploiting class
(3) most exploiting class (4) mostly the exploit class
(5) No Correction Require

Qs. 41-50. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five ords are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.
The traditional method of managing credit risk is (41) diversification. Although (42) credit risk through diversification is effective, institutions are often onstrained y (43) of diversification (44) on account of limited area of (45). During the last few years, managing credit risk through selling assets by way of securitisation has (46) in popularity. The market for securitised assets has grown (47) in the last few years and is expected to grow further in the (48) years. This mode of credit isk mitigation is most (49) to loans with standardized payment schedules and similar credit risk characteristics such as housing loans, auto loans, credit card eceivables, etc.
Further, shedding loans through securitisation might (50) client relationship. In this context, credit derivatives provide a new technique for managing credit risk.

41. (1) by (2) onto (3) for (4) at (5) through

42. (1) watching (2) mitigating (3) taking (4) affording (5) seeing
43. (1) lack (2) supply (3) scarcity (4) void (5) want
44. (1) luck (2) fortune (3) activities (4) opportunities (5) chance
45. (1) place (2) transaction (3) operations (4) dealing (5) work
46. (1) gained (2) sold (3) valued (4) bought (5) profited
47. (1) gigantic (2) slowly (3) slightly (4) needlessly (5) impressively
48. (1) yester (2) futuristic (3) golden (4) coming (5) past
49. (1) desired (2) suited (3) wanted (4) suitable (5) popular
50. (1) kill (2) lynch (3) damage (4) promote (5) burn

ANSWERS:-
1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (2) 4 (1) 5. (2) 6. (5) 7. (3) 8. (1) 9. (2) 10. (1) 11. (4) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (1) 15. (1) 16. (3) 17. (5) 18. (2) 19. (4) 20. (1)
21. (3) ‘has fallen’ (4) ‘for want of incentive’
22. (3) ‘for extending’ 23. (1) “Romesh has been”
24. (4) ‘nothing to eat’ 25. (5) No error
26. (2) ‘is not able to sing’
27. (4) ‘part with any one of them’
28. (1) ‘When he was walking’
29. (2) ‘not related to me’ 30. (5) No error
31. (1) 32. (4) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (5) 36. (5) 37. (2) 38. (4) 39. (3) 40. (1) 41. (5) 42. (2) 43. (1) 44. (3) 45. (3) 46. (1) 47. (5) 48. (4) 49. (2) 50. (3)

UCO Bank Previous Year Numerical Ability Solved Question Paper

UCO Bank Previous Year Numerical Ability Solved Question Paper

1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?
(a) 30 minutes(b) 25 minutes(c) 28 minutes(d) 34 minutes

2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?
(a) 4096(b) 8192(c) 512(d) 1024

3. Find the number missing at question mark:10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149
(a) 100(b) 103(c) 78(d) 128

4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from ‘Trivandrum’ and reaches ‘Attingal’ in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance?
(a) 34 minutes (b) 36 minutes (c) 38 minutes (d) 40 minutes

5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure?
(a) 12 (b) 9 (c) 7 (d) 6

6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?
(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18

7. One fourth percent of 180 is:
(a) 4.5 (b) 0.45 (c) 0.045 (d) 45

8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?
(a) 100 (b) 200 (c) 180 (d) 150

9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135 ……………
(a) 16 (b) 15 (c) 17 (d) 14

10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?
(a) 16.67 (b) 20 (c) 23 (d) 17

11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is ………….
(a) 1:40 (b) 1:4000 (c) 9:10 (d) 1:400

12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?
(a) 204 (b) 250 (c) 240 (d) 210

13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?
(a) 25 (b) 00 (c) 75 (d) 50

14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long?
(a) 30 seconds (b) 36 seconds (c) 20 seconds (d) 18 seconds

15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be …….
(a) 90 seconds (b) 70 seconds (c) 60 seconds (d) 100 seconds

16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?
(a) Rs. 30 (b) Rs. 24 (c) Rs. 36 (d) Rs. 40

17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work?
(a) 5 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 6

18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers
(a) 5050 (b) 5005 (c) 9900 (d) 9050

19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:
(a) 12m (b) 5m (c) 13m (d) 11m

20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?
(a) 4 (b) 8 (c) 16 (d) 2

21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ……..
(a) x1 = + 3, x2 = -3 (b) x1 = 3, x2 = 3(c) x1 = -3, x2 = -3 (d) No solution

22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?
(a) 2/3 (b) 1/6 (c) 1/3 (d) 1/2

23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years?
(a) 10% (b) 7.5% (c) 16% (d) 15%

24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 9 (d) 5

25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM
(a) 900 (b) 1200 (c) 1500 (d) 2400

26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in
(a) 20 minute (b) 25 minutes(c) 7 minutes 30 seconds (d) 10 minutes

27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats
(a) 1 minutes (b) 10 minute (c) 100 minutes (d) 10000 minutes

28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:
(a) 250 (b) 750 (c) 400 (d) 300

29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them?
(a) 6 days (b) 7 days (c) 10 days (d) 8 days

30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?
(a) 25 (b) 28 (c) 26 (d) 27

31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?
(a) 33 1/8 % (b) 66 2/3 % (c) 25 % (d) 50 %

32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is:
(a) 7,200m2 (b) 15,000m2 (c) 54,000m2 (d) 13,500m2

33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number?
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 2.5 (d) 2.0

34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks?
(a) 400 (b) 500 (c) 475 (d) 450

35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the
(a) Interior of the triangle
(b) Midpoint of the diameter
(c) Exterior of the triangle
(d) Midpoint of the side of the triangle

36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?
(a) 360 (b) 90 (c) 270 (d) 180

37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?
(a) Circumcentre (b) Centroid (c) Orthocenter (d) Incentre

38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is ‘r’ what is its slant height?
(a) 3r (b) 4r (c) v5r (d) v3r

39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?
(a) 4:9 (b) 2:3 (c) 8:27 (d) 4:6

40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3v2, 6, 6v2 ?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (c) v2 (d) v3

41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?
(a) 25 (b) 30 (c) 50 (d) 45

42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?
(a) 3 km/hr (b) 4 km/hr (c) 4.5 km/hr (d) 5 km/hr

43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?
(a) 20 (b) 26 (c) 30 (d) 32

44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.
(a) 48 sq.cm (b) 34 sq.cm (c) 24 sq.cm (d) 42 sq.cm

45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54, ……
(a) 81 (b) 69 (c) 63 (d) 57

46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:
(a) 20 (b) 22 (c) 25 (d) 30

47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =
(a) 5 (b) 2 (c) 6 (d) 21

48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30
(a) 800 (b) 600 (c) 1050 (d) 750

49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?
(a) 306 (b) 765 (c) 700 (d) 510

50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:
(a) 36 (b) 37 (c) 38 (d) 31

Answers
1-A, 11-B, 21-C, 31-D, 41-A, 2-B, 12-A, 22-B, 32-D, 42-A, 3-A, 13-D, 23-A, 33-B, 43-B, 4-B 14-D, 24-C, 34-D, 44-C, 5-C, 15-A , 25-B, 35-C, 45-A, 6 -B, 16-C, 26-A, 36-D, 46-C, 7-C, 17-D, 27-B, 37-B, 47-B, 8-D, 18-A, 28-D, 38-C, 48-D, 9-C, 19-C, 29-C, 39-C, 49-B, 10-B, 20-B, 30-B, 40-C, 50-B

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