NATIONAL BANK FOR AGRICULTURE AND RURAL DEVELOPMENT Previous Year Paper

NATIONAL BANK FOR AGRICULTURE AND RURAL DEVELOPMENT Previous Year Paper

1. In a certain code DESPAIR is written as TFEQSJB. How is NUMERAL written in that code ?

(A) OVNFMBS

(B) NVOFSBN

(C) NVOMFBS

(D) NVOFMBS

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

2. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the first, second, sixth and tenth letters of the word DISCLAIMER, which of the following will be the third letter from the left ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such words can be made, give ‘Y’ as the answer.

(A) I

(B) R

(C) D

(D) X

(E) Y

Ans : (A)

3. How many such digits are there in the number 27561493 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number as when the digits are arranged in descending order within the number ?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans : (B)

4. If ‘yellow’ is called ‘red’, ‘red’ is called ‘blue’, ‘blue’ is called ‘white’, ‘white’ is called ‘black’, ‘black’ is called ‘green’, and ‘green’ is called ‘violet’, what is the colour of clear sky ?

(A) Green

(B) Violet

(C) Yellow

(D) Red

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

5. It was 9•35 a.m. in Rakhi’s watch, which kept correct time, when Reena informed her that the last bus left the bus stop at 9•25 a.m. Reena’s watch is 5 minutes fast. The frequency of the bus is every 20 minutes. For how long Rakhi must wait to catch the next bus ?

(A) 5 minutes

(B) 10 minutes

(C) 15 minutes

(D) 25 minutes

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

6. Which of the following should come next in the given sequence of numbers ?

2 4 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 3 1 2 2 4 3 1 2 3 2 4 3 1 2 3

(A) 2

(B) 3

(C) 4

(D) 5

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

7. How many meaningful English words can be formed with the letters EDOM using each letter only once in each word ?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans : (C)

8. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(A) Nephew

(B) Cousin

(C) Mother

(D) Brother

(E) Sister

Ans : (B)

9. How many pairs of letters are there in the word SECURITY each of which has as many alphabets between them as there are in the English alphabetical series ?

(A) None

(B) Two

(C) Three

(D) Four

(E) More than four

Ans : (C)

10. In a certain code STAR is written as 5$*2 and TORE is written as $32@. How is OATS written in that code ?

(A) 3*5$

(B) 3*$5

(C) 3$*5

(D) 35*$

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given four statements followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read all the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.

11. Statements : Some doctors are lawyers. All teachers are lawyers. Some engineers are lawyers. All engineers are businessmen.

Conclusions :

I. Some teachers are doctors.

II. Some businessmen are lawyers.

III. Some businessmen are teachers.

IV. Some lawyers are teachers.

(A) None follows

(B) Only II follows

(C) Only III follows

(D) Only II and IV follow

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

12. Statements : All plastics are glasses. Some sponges are glasses. All sponges are clothes. All clothes are liquids.

Conclusions :

I. All liquids are sponges.

II. Some plastics are clothes

III. All glasses are plastics

IV. All liquids are clothes.

(A) None follows

(B) Only either II or IV follows

(C) Only IV follows

(D) Only III and IV follow

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

13. Statements : All sands are beaches. All shores are beaches. Some beaches are trees. All trees are hotels.

Conclusions :

I. Some shores are hotels.

II. All beaches are shores.

III. Some beaches are hotels.

IV. Some sands are trees.

(A) None follows

(B) Only II follows

(C) Only either I or III follows

(D) Only IV follows

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

14. Statements : All parrots are pigeons. Some crows are pigeons. Some sparrows are crows. All sparrows are koels.

Conclusions :

I. Some koels are crows.

II. Some parrots are crows.

III. Some sparrows are pigeons.

IV. No crow is a parrot.

(A) Only I follows

(B) Only III follows

(C) Only I and either II or IV follow

(D) Only either I or III follows

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

15. Statements : All chairs are tables. All tables are cushions. Some cushions are trolleys. All trolleys are lamps.

Conclusions :

I. Some lamps are tables.

II. Some trolleys are chairs.

III. Some cushions are lamps.

IV. All chairs are cushions.

(A) Only I follows

(B) Only III and IV follow

(C) Only either I or II follows

(D) All follow

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions—

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight friends sitting around a circular table facing the centre. A sits second to the left of D who is third to the left of E. C sits third to the right of G who is not an immediate neighbour of E.

H sits third to the right of B who sits second of the right of G.

16. Who sits between D and C ?

(A) Only B

(B) Only C and A

(C) Only G

(D) Only E

(E) Only G and E

Ans : (A)

17. Who sits second to the right of E ?

(A) B

(B) F

(C) G

(D) C

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

18. What is the position of A with respect to H ?

(A) Third to the left

(B) Third to the right

(C) Second to the left

(D) Second to the right

(E) Fourth to the left

Ans : (D)

19. Four of the following five are alike based upon their seating arrangements and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?

(A) CH

(B) FG

(C) DA

(D) BE

(E) GB

Ans : (C)

20. Which of the following pairs has the second person sitting to the immediate left of the first person ?

(A) DB

(B) EH

(C) FA

(D) GD

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) These questions are based on the following letter/number/symbol arrangement. Study it carefully and answer the questions.

8 # B 2 © E K 7 % 5 A 1 $ G D 9 4 U * C 6 H @ I 3

21. How many such numbers are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a consonant and also followed by a symbol ?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans : (D)

22. Which of the following should replace the question mark in the following series based on the above arrangement ?

2EK, %A1, G94, ?

(A) *6H

(B) UC6

(C) *CH

(D) *6@

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

23. Which of the following is the fifth to the left of seventeenth from the left end of the arrangement ?

(A) $

(B) G

(C) A

(D) D

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

24. If all the numbers are deleted from the above arrangement, which of the following will be the twelfth from the right end ?

(A) %

(B) K

(C) *

(D) C

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

25. How many such symbols are there in the above arrangement each of which is immediately preceded by a number and also immediately followed by a letter ?

(A) None

(B) One

(C) Two

(D) Three

(E) More than three

Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :

‘P ÷ Q’ means ‘P is son of Q’.

‘P × Q’ means ‘P is sister of Q’.

‘P + Q’ means ‘P is brother of Q’.

‘P – Q’ means ‘P is mother of Q’.

26. How is T related to S in the expression ‘T × R + V ÷ S’ ?

(A) Sister

(B) Mother

(C) Aunt

(D) Uncle

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

27. How is T related to S in the expression ‘T × R ÷ V – S’ ?

(A) Father

(B) Sister

(C) Daughter

(D) Aunt

(E) None of these

Ans : (B)

28. How is S related to T in the expression ‘T + R – V + S’ ?

(A) Uncle

(B) Nephew

(C) Son

(D) Cannot be determined

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

29. Which of the following means that ‘S is the husband of T’ ?

(A) T × R – V + S

(B) T – R ÷ V × S

(C) T – R + V ÷ S

(D) T ÷ R × V + S

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

30. How is V related to T in the expression ‘T ÷ R + V × S’ ?

(A) Aunt

(B) Nephew

(C) Niece

(D) Uncle

(E) None of these

Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 31–35) Each of the questions below consists of a question and two statements numbered I and II are given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and Give answer—

(A) If the data in Statement I alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement II alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(B) If the data in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement I alone are not sufficient to answer the question.

(C) If the data in Statement I alone or in Statement II alone are sufficient to answer the question.

(D) If the data in both the Statements I and II are not sufficient to answer the question.

(E) If the data in both the Statements I and II together are necessary to answer the question.

31. How is A related to B ?

I. A is sister-in-law of C who is the daughter-in-law of B who is the wife of D.

II. B is the mother of A’s son’s only uncle’s son.

Ans : (B)

32. Amongst A, B, C, D, E and F each are having a different height, who is the shortest ?

I. C is shorter than only B.

II. A is taller than only D and F.

Ans : (D)

33. Point X is in which direction with respect to Y ?

I. Point Z is at equal distance from both point X and point Y.

II. Walking 5 km to the East of point X and taking two consecutive right turns after walking 5 kms before each turn leads to point Y.

Ans : (D)

34. How is ‘must’ written in a code language ?

I. ‘you must see’ is written as ‘la pa ni’ and ‘did you see’ is written as ‘jo ni pa’ in that code language.

II. ‘you did that’ is written as ‘pa si jo’ in that code language.

Ans : (A)

35. On which day of the week does Arti’s birthday fall ?

I. Sonu correctly remembers that Arti’s birthday falls after Wednesday but before Sunday.

II. Raj correctly remembers that Arti’s birthday falls before Friday but after Tuesday.

Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 36–40) Below in each question are given two statements I and II. These statements may be either independent causes or may be effects of independent causes or a common cause. One of these statements may be the effect of the other statement. Read both the statements and decide which of the following answer choice correctly depicts the relationship between these two statements.

Mark answer—

(A) If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect.

(B) If statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect.

(C) If both the statements I and II are independent causes.

(D) If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes.

(E) If both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause.

36. I. Computer education has been made compulsory for all the classes by many schools.

II. The current job market prefers computer literate workforce.

Ans : (B)

37. I. The standard of education in evening colleges of the State has been deteriorating.

II. The standard of school education has been fast deteriorating in the State.

Ans : (E)

38. I. All domestic airlines increased the fares in all sectors with immediate effect.

II. Railways increased the fare of all its classes with immediate effect.

Ans : (E)

39. I. The prices of fruits and vegetables fell substantially over the last few days.

II. The quality of fruits and vegetables improved considerably over the last few days.

Ans : (D)

40. I. Recent floods in the area changed the nutritional contents of the soil.

II. Farmers in the area switched over to cultivating rice instead of wheat.

Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 41–45) In the following questions, the symbols #, $, %, * and @ are used with the following meaning as illustrated below :

‘A # B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’.

‘A $ B’ means ‘A is neither smaller nor equal to B’.

‘A % B’ means ‘A is neither smaller nor greater than B’.

‘A * B’ means ‘A is neither greater nor equal to B’.

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’.

Now in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true and give your answer accordingly. Mark answer—

(A) If only conclusion I is true.

(B) If only conclusion II is true.

(C) If either conclusion I or II is true.

(D) If neither conclusion I nor II is true.

(E) If both conclusion I and II are true.

41. Statements :

A # B, B % C, C * D

Conclusions :

I. C @ A

II. A # D

Ans : (A)

42. Statements :

P $ Q, Q @ S, S % R

Conclusions :

I. P @ R

II. R $ Q

Ans : (D)

43. Statements :

W * X, X # Y, Y $ Z

Conclusions :

I. W * Z

II. W @ Z

Ans : (C)

44. Statements :

G @ H, H $ J, J % K

Conclusions :

I. K * G

II. J * G

Ans : (E)

45. Statements :

N @ M, M $ P, P # T

Conclusions :

I. T # N

II. P * N

Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 46–50) Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions :

A, B, C, D, E, F and G are seven friends studying seven different branches of engineering, namely Mechanical, Chemical, Electrical, Electronics, Civil, Computer and Aeronautical Engineering, not necessarily in this order. Each of them studies in three different colleges, X, Y and Z. Not less than two study in any college. D studies Electrical engineering in College X. The one who studies Chemical Engineering does not study in college Z. F studies Aeronautical engineering in college Y with only B. A does not study in college X and does not study Civil engineering. E studies Computer engineering and does not study in college X. G studies Electronics engineering but not in college X. None in college X studies Mechanical or Civil engineering.

46. Which of the following groups represents the persons studying in college Z ?

(A) D, B

(B) C, E, G

(C) A, G

(D) G, E, A

(E) None of these

Ans : (D)

47. In which of the following colleges does C study ?

(A) X

(B) Y

(C) Z

(D) Either X or Z

(E) Cannot be determined

Ans : (A)

48. Which of the following combinations is correct ?

(A) A—Civil—Z

(B) B—Chemical—Y

(C) C—Chemical—Z

(D) G—Electronics—Y

(E) None of these

Ans : (E)

49. B studies in which of the following branches of engineering ?

(A) Chemical

(B) Mechanical

(C) Civil

(D) Cannot eb determined

(E) None of these

Ans : (C)

50. Who studies Chemical engineering ?

(A) B

(B) C

(C) E

(D) A

(E) None of these

Ans. (B)

ENGINEERING ASSISTANTS in AIR and DD 2010 MODEL PAPER

ENGINEERING ASSISTANTS in AIR and DD 2010 MODEL PAPER
AIR and DD Engineering Assistants Solved Question Paper

1. Which one of the following physical quantities, is not defined in the terms of force per unit area:
(a) pressure
(b) strain
(c) stress
(d) Young’s modulus
Ans:b


2. The distance moved by a moving body is equal to:
(a) area between the distance-time graph and distance axis
(b) area between the speed-time graph and time axis
(c) area between the distance-time graph and time axis
(d) area between the speed-time graph and distance axis.
Ans:b


3. A beaker containing water weighs 100 gm. It is placed on the pan of a balance and a piece of metal weighing 70 gm. and having a volume of 10cc. is placed inside the water in the beaker. The weight of the beaker and the metal would be :
(a) 170gm.
(c) 100gm.
(b)160gm.
(d)30gm.
Ans:a


4. For the same kinetic energy, the momentum shall be maximum for:
(a) electron
(b) proton
(c) deuteron
(d) alpha particle
Ans:d


5. The common balance works on the principle of equality of:
(a) forces
(b) moments of forces
(c) masses
(d) masses of pans
Ans:b


6. A particle moves in a circle of radius R with a constant speed under a centripetal force F. The work done in completing a full circle is:
(a) 2RF
(b) ΠR2F
(c) 2ΠRF
(d)Zero
Ans:d


7. When two quantities are plotted on the graph paper against each other and the result so obtained is a st. line, then
(a) Both the quantities are equal
(b) The quantities are inversely proportional to each other
(c) Sum of both is zero
(d) The quantities are proportional to each other
Ans:d


8. What is the order of magnitude of 260°?
(a)103
(b) 104
(c)102
(d) 10
Ans:c


9. The maximum value of g is:
(a) At the poles
(b) At the top of the Mount Everest
(c) At the equator
(d) Below the sea level
Ans:a


10. A fixed volume of gas at 27°C exerts a pressure of 750 mm. If the gas is heated to a pressure of 1500mm., temperature must be:
(a) 600°C
(b) 327°C
(c) 54°C
(d) 13.5°C
Ans:b


11. A body of mass 2 kg acted upon by a constant force, travels a distance of 3 metres in the first second and a further distance of meter in the next second. The force acting on the body is?
(a) 12 Newtons
(b) 8 Newtons
(c) 4 Newtons
(d) 1 Newton
Ans:c


12. Two forces each equal to P acting at a point have no resultant. The angle between the two forces must be equal to:
(a)180°
(b) 90°
(c)0°
(d) 120°
Ans:a


13. A jet engine works on the principle of:
(a) conservation of energy
(b) conservation of momentum
(c) conservation of mass
(d) conservation of temperature
Ans:b


14. A sharp knife cuts much better than a blunt one because?
(a) Area of sharp knife is much less than the area of the blunt one
(b) sharp knife is brighter
(c) sharp knife is colder
(d) sharp knife is costly
Ans:a
15. A man carries a heavy box on his head on a horizontal plane from one place to another.
In this he does?
(a) maximum work
(b) no work
(c) negative work
(d) minimum work
Ans:b


16. The bob of a second’s pendulum is replaced by another bob of double mass. The new time period will be:
(a) 4 sec.
(c) 2 sec.
(b) 1 sec
(d) 3 sec.
Ans:c
17.A device for measuring temperatures at a distance is
(a) gas thermometer
(b) mercury thermometer
(c) radiation
(d) maximum-minimum thermometer
Ans:c
18. A piece of ice is floating in a concentrated solution of common salt (in water) in a pot. When ice melts completely, the level of solution will:
(a) go up
(b) remain the same
(c) go down
(d) first go up then go down
Ans:a


19. A radioactive source has a half-life of 30 days. During a period of 90 days the fraction of atoms that have decayed would be
(a)100%
(b) 87.5%
(c)64%
(d) 50%
Ans:b


20. A black body emits:
(a) radiations of all wavelengths
(b) no radiations
(c) radiations of only one wavelength
(d) radiations of selected wavelengths
Ans:a
21. A near sighted person cannot see distinctly beyond 50 cm. from his eye. The power in diopter of spectacle lenses which will enable him to see distant objects clearly is
(a) +50
(b) —50
(c) +2
(d) —2
Ans:c


22. Size of a nucleus is of the order of?
(a)10-18m
(b) 10-14m
(c)10-10m
(d) 10-6m
Ans:b
23. The freezing point on a thermometer is marked as 20° and the boiling point as 150°C. A temperature of 60°C on this thermometer will be read as:
(a)40°
(b) 65°
(c)98°
(d) 110°
Ans:c


24. In isothermal expansion of an ideal gas:
(a) heat content remains constant
(b) temperature remains constant
(c) both heat content and temperature remain constant
(d) pressure and temperature of the gas remain constant
Ans:b


25. A man standing between two cliffs hears the first echo of a sound after 2 sec. and the second echo 3 sec. after the initial sound. If the speed of sound be 330 m/sec. the distance between the two cliffs should be
(a)1650 m.
(b)990 m.
(c)825 m
(d) 660 m.
Ans:c


26. In a resonance tube experiment the first resonance is obtained for 10 cm. of air column and the second for 32 cm. The end correction for this apparatus is equal to?
(a)0.5 cm
(b)1.0 cm
(c)1.5 cm
(d) 2 cm
Ans:b


27. The ratio of the specific heat of air at constant pressure to its specific heat at constant volume is?
(a) zero
(b) greater than one
(c) less than one
(d) equal to one
Ans:b


28. A convex lens has a focal length of 10 cm. When it is immersed in water it will behave
as?
(a) a convex tens of 10 cm. focal length
(b) a concave lens of 10 cm. focal length
(c) a convex lens of focal length greater than 10cm.
(d) a convex lens of focal length less than 10 cm.
Ans:c


29. Two particles having charges q1 and q2 when kept at a certain distance exert a force F on each other. If the distance between the two particles is reduced to half and the charge on each particle is doubled the force between the particles would be ?
(a)2F
(b)4F
(c)8F
(d)16F
Ans:d


30. A small magnet is placed perpendicular to a constant magnetic field. The forces acting on the magnet will result in?
(a) rotation
(b) translation
(c) no motion at all
(d) rotation as well as translation
Ans:a


31. A hollow metallic sphere is charged. Inside the sphere?
(a) the potential is zero but the electric field is finite
(b) the electric field is zero but the potential is finite
(c) both the electric field and the potential are finite
(d) both the electric field and the potential are zero
Ans:b
32. Two electric lamps each of 100 watts 220 V are connected in series to a supply of 220 volts. The power consumed would be:
(a)100 Watts
(b) 200 Watts
(c)25 Watts
(d) 50 Watts
Ans:d


33. A transformer is:
(a) a device for stepping up D.C.
(b) a generator of current
(c) device for converting direct current into alternating current
(d) a device for stepping up or down the voltage of A.C. supply
Ans:d
34. Transistor act as a?
(a) conductor
(b) semi-conductor
(c) insulator
(d) thermionic valve
Ans:d


35. The sky is blue because:
(a) there is more blue light in the sunlight
(b) of scattering of sunlight by air molecules in the atmosphere
(c) of scattering of sunlight by dust particles in the atmosphere
(d) other colours are absorbed by heavenly bodies
Ans:b
36. A cyclonic storm is indicated by a change in the atmospheric pressure. In atmospheric
pressure there is a:
(a)sudden rise
(b) gradual rise
(c)sudden fall
(d) gradual fall
Ans:c
37. The electric field inside a hollow conducting sphere will ?
(a) increases towards the centre
(b) decreases towards the centre
(c) is finite and constant throughout
(d) is zero
Ans:d
38. Imperfect gases are those:
(a) which contain impurities
(b) which do not obey Charle’s and Boyle’s laws
(c) whose molecules are not spherical
(d) whose molecules cannot be regarded as point masses
Ans:b
39. Sonar is a device for:
(a) location and ranging of aircraft’s
(b) location and ranging submarines
(c) producing a musical note of high quality
(d) measuring frequency of musical notes
Ans:b
40. Cyclotron is a device to produce:
(a) atomic energy
(b) high energy electrons
(c) high energy photons
(d) high energy protons
Ans:d
41. Which one of the following is not a vector?
(a) Velocity
(b) Acceleration
(c) Force
(d) Energy
Ans:d
42. Two steel balls of mass 1 kg. and 2kg. and a lead ball of 10kg. are released together from the top of tower 30 metres high. Assuming the path to be in vacuum
(a) the lead ball reaches the ground earlier
(b) the 1 kg. steel bail reaches the ground earlier
(c) all the balls reach the ground simultaneously
(d) the 2 kg. steel ball reaches the ground earlier
Ans:c
43. After a watch has been wound, it?
(a) has great energy stored in it
(b) possesses mechanical potential energy stored in it
(c) has eletrical energy stored in it
(d) has no energy in it
Ans:b


44. Two plane mirrors are set at right angles and a flower is placed in any position in between the mirrors. The number of images of the flower which will be seen is?
(b) two
(d) four
(a) one
(c) three
Ans:c


45. In which of the following cases total internal reflection cannot be obtained?
(a) ray going from water to glass
(b) a ray going from glass to water
(c) a ray going from glass to air
(d) a ray going from water to air.
Ans:a


46. When white light passes through a glass prism, we get a spectrum on the other side of the prism. In the emergent beam the ray which is deviated least is
(a) the violet ray
(b) the red ray
(c) the green ray
(d) the yellow ray
Ans:b


47. Magnetic storms are due to
(a) the rotation of the earth
(b) the revolution of the earth
(c) the rainy season
(d) the appearance off Sun spots
Ans:d


48. For dynamo which one of the following statements is correct ?
(a) It converts the electrical energy into light energy
(b) It converts the kinetic energy into heat energy
(c) It converts the mechanical energy into electrical energy
(d) Jt converts the electrical energy into mechanical energy.
Ans:c


49. In a transformer the immediate cause of the induced A. C. in the secondary coil is?
(a) a varying electric field
(b) a varying magnetic field
(e) a motion of the secondary coil
(d) efficiency of the operator
Ans:b


50.A dynamo actually acts as a?
(a) converter of energy
(b) source of electric charge
(c) source of magnetic charge
(d) source of energy
Ans:a

All India Radio AIR and DD Engineering Assistants Solved Question Paper

All India Radio (AIR) and DD Engineering Assistants Solved Question Paper

1. A current carrying coil is subjected to a uniform magnetic field. The coil will orient so that its
plane becomes    ?
(a) inclined at 45° to the magnetic field
(b) inclined at any arbitrary angle to the
magnetic field
(c)   parallel to the magnetic field
(d)   perpendicular to magnetic field
Ans:c


2. Tesla is the unit of
(a)    magnetic flux
(b)    magnetic field
(c)    magnetic induction
(d)    magnetic moment
Ans:b


3. Energy in a current carrying coil is stored in the
form of   ?
(a) electric field
(b) magnetic field
(c) dielectric strength
(d) heat
Ans:b


4. The total charge induced in a conducting loop when it is moved in magnetic field depends on?
(a) the rate of change of magnetic flux
(b) initial magnetic flux only
(c) the total change in magnetic flux
(d) final magnetic flux only.
Ans:c


5. The magnetic induction at a point P which is at the distance of 4 cm from a long current carrying wire is 10-3 T. The field of induction at a distance 12 cm from the current will be ?
(a) 3.33 x 10-4 T
(b) 1.11x 10-4 T
(c) 3×10-3 T
(d) 9×10-3 T
Ans:a


6. A charge moving with velocity v in X-direction is subjected to a field of magnetic induction in negative X-direction. As a result, the charge will
(a) remain unaffected
(b) start moving in a circular path in Y—Z plane
(c) retard along X-axis
(d) moving along a helical path around X-axis
Ans:a


7. A uniform magnetic field acts right angles to the direction of motion of electrons. As a result, the electron moves in a circular path of radius 2cm. If the speed of electrons is doubled, then the radius of the circular path will be ?
(a)2.0 cm
(b) 0.5 cm
(c)4.0cm
(d) 1.0cm
Ans:c


8. A deuteron of kinetic energy 50 keV is describing a circular orbit of radius 0.5 metre in a plane perpendicular to magnetic field B. The kinetic energy of the proton that describes a circular orbit of radius 0.5 metre in the same plane with
the same B is
(a)25 keV
(b) 50 keV
(c)200 keV
(d) 100 keV
Ans:d


9. A straight wire of length 0.5 metre and carrying a current of 1.2 ampere is placed in uniform magnetic field of induction 2 Tesla. The magnetic field is perpendicular to the length of the wire. The force on the wire is ?
(a) 2.4N
(b) 1.2N
(c) 3.0 N
(d) 2.0 N
Ans:b


10. To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter, one needs to connect a ?
(a) low resistance in parallel
(b) high resistance in parallel
(c) low resistance in series
(d) high resistance in series.
Ans:a


11. A coil carrying electric current is placed in uniform magnetic field
(a) torque is formed
(B) e.m.f is induced
(c) both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) none of the above
Ans:a


12. The magnetic field at a distance ‘r’ from a long wire carrying current ‘i’ is 0.4 Tesla. The magnetic field at a distance ‘2r’ is ?
(a)0.2Tesla
(b) 0.8 Tesla
(c)0.1 Tesla
(d) 1.6 Tesla
Ans:a
13. A electron enters a region where magnetic (B) and electric (E) fields are mutually
perpendicular, then ?
(a) it will always move in the direction of B
(b) it will always move in the direction of E
(c) it always possesses circular motion
(d) it can go un deflected also.
Ans:d


14. A straight wire of diameter 0.5 mm carrying a current of 1 A is replaced by another wire of I mm diameter carrying same current. The strength of magnetic field far away is?
(a) twice the earlier value
(b) same as the earlier value
(c) one-half of the earlier value
(d) one-quarter of the earlier value
Ans:b


15. At what distance from a long straight wire carrying a current of 12 A will the magnetic field
be equal to 3×10-6 Wb/metre Square
(a) 8×10-2 m
(b) 12×10-2 m
(c)18x 10-2 m
(d) 24×10-2 m
Ans:a


16. An electron moves in a circular orbit with a uniform speed v. It produces a magnetic field B at the centre of the circle. The radius of the circle is proportional to ?
(a) √(B/v)
(b) B/v
(c) √(v/B)
(d)v/B
Ans:d


17. A 10 eV electron is circulating in a plane at right angles to a uniform field at magnetic induction 10-4 Wb/m2 (= 1.0 gauss). The orbital radius of the electron is ?
(a) 12cm
(b) 16cm
(c) 11cm
(d) 18cm
Ans:c


18. A galvanometer acting as a voltmeter will have?
(a) a low resistance in series with its coil.
(b) a high resistance in parallel with its coil
(c) a high resistance in series with its coil
(d) a low resistance in parallel with its coil
Ans:c


19. A beam of electrons is moving with constant velocity in a region having simultaneous perpendicular electric and magnetic fields of strength 20 Vm-1 and 0.5 T respectively at right angles to the direction of motion of the electrons. Then the velocity of electrons must be?
(a) 8m/s
(b) 20 m/s
(c) 40m/s
(d) 1/40 m/s
Ans:c


20. A galvanometer of resistance 20 Ohms gives full scale deflection with a current of 0.004 A. To convert it into an ammeter of range 1 A, the required shunt resistance should be?
(a) 0.38 Ohms
(b) 0.21 Ohms
(c) 0.08 Ohms
(d) 0.05 Ohms
Ans:c


21. A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is doubled and the number of turns per cm is halved, the new value of the magnetic field is ?
(a) 4B
(b) B/2
(c) B
(d) 2B
Ans:c
22. A positively charged particle moving due east enters a region of uniform magnetic field directed vertically upwards. The particle will
(a) continue to move due east
(b) move in a circular orbit with its speed unchanged
(c) move in a circular orbit with its speed increased
(d) gets deflected vertically upwards.
Ans:b
23. Two long parallel wires are at a distance of 1 metre. Both of them carry one ampere of current The force of attraction per unit length between the two wires is?
(a)2 x10-7 N/m
(b) 2 x10-8 N/m
(c) 5×10-8 N/m
(d)10-7 N/m
Ans:a


24. A galvanometer having a resistance of 8 ohms is shunted by a wire of resistance 2 ohms. If the total current is 1 amp, the part of it passing through the shunt will be?
(a)0.25 amp
(b) 0.8 amp
(c)0.2 amp
(d) 0.5 amp
Ans:b


25. A coil of one turn is made of a wire of certain length and then from the same length a coil of two turns is made. If the same current is passed in both the cases, then the ratio of the magnetic inductions at their centres will be?
(a)2:1
(b)1:4
(c)4:1
(d)1:2
Ans:b


26. Magnetic field intensity in the centre of coil of 50 turns, radius 0.5 m and carrying a current of
2A is ?
(a) 0.5 x 10-5 T
(b) 1.25x 10-4 T
(c) 3x 10-5 T
(c) 4 x 10-5 T
Ans:b


27. When a proton is accelerated through I V, then its kinetic energy will be?
(a)1840 eV
(b) 13.6eV
(c)1 eV
(d) 0.54eV
Ans:c
28. If a long hollow copper pipe carries a current,thin magnetic field is produced
(a)inside the pipe only
(b)outside the pipe only
(c)both inside and outside the pipe
(d) no where
Ans:b


29. A charged particle moves through a magnetic field in a direction perpendicular to it. Then the
(a) velocity remains unchanged
(b) speed of the particle remains unchanged
(c) direction of the particle remains unchanged
(d) acceleration remains unchanged
Ans:b


30. Two long parallel wires P and Q are both perpendicular to the plane of the paper with distance of 5 m between them. If P and Q carry current of 2.5 amp and 5 amp respectively in the same direction, then the magnetic field at a point half-way between the wires is ?
(a)3µ/2∏
(b)µ/∏
(c)√3µ/2∏
(d)µ/2∏
Ans:a


31. A proton moving with a velocity 3 x 105 m/s enters a magnetic field of 0.3 Tesla at an angle of 30° with the field. The radius of curvature of its path will be (e/m for proton – 108 C/kg)
(a)2cm
(b) 0.5 cm
(c)0.02 cm
(d) 1.25 cm
Ans:b
32. A charged particle of charge q and mass m enters perpendicularly in a magnetic field B. Kinetic energy of the particle is E; then frequency of rotation is?
(a)qB/m∏
(b) qB/2m∏
(c)qBE/2m∏
(d) qB/2E∏
Ans:b


33. A galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter by connecting?
(a) A high resistance in parallel
(b) A low resistance in series
(c) A high resistance in series
(d) A low resistance in parallel
Ans:c


34. A wire carries a current. Maintaining the same current it is bent first to form a circular plane coil of one turn which produces a magnetic field B at the centre of the coil. The same length is now bent more sharply to give a double loop of smaller radius. The magnetic field at the centre of the double loop, caused by the same current is ?
(a)4B
(b) B /4
(c) B/2
(d) 2B
Ans:a


35.A bar magnet is oscillating in earth’s magnetic field with a period T. What happens to its period of motion, if its mass is quadruped ?
(a) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period =T/2
(b) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period = 2 T
(c) Motion remains simple harmonic with new period =4T
(d) Motion remains simple harmonic and the period stays nearly constant
Ans:b


36. The work done in turning a magnet of magnetic moment M by an angle of 90° from the meridian, is n times the corresponding work done to turn it through an angle of 60°.
The value of n is given by
(a)2
(b) 1
(c) 0.5
(d) 0.25
Ans:a


37 . For protecting a sensitive equipment from the external electric arc, it should be ?
(a) Wrapped with insulation around it when passing current through it
(b) Placed inside an iron can
(c) Surrounded with fine copper sheet
(d) Placed inside an aluminium can
Ans:b
38. If a diamagnetic substance is brought near north or south pole of a bar magnet, it is?
(a) attracted by the poles
(b) repelled by the poles
(c) repelled by north pole and attracted by the south pole
(d) attracted by the north pole and repelled by the south pole
Ans:b


39. Current i is flowing in a coil of area A and number of turns N, then magnetic moment of
the coil is M= ?
(a) NiA
(b) Ni/A
(c)Ni/√A
(d) N2Ai
Ans:a


40. Two magnets of magnetic moments M and 2M are placed in a vibration magnetometer, with the identical poles in the same direction. The time period of vibration is T1. If the magnets are placed with opposite poles together and vibrate with time period T2 then ?
(a) T2 is infinite
(b) T2=T1
(c)T2>T1
(d) T2 is less than T1
Ans:c


41. A diamagnetic material in a magnetic field moves
(a) perpendicular to the field
(b) from stronger to the weaker pans of the field
(c) from weaker to the stronger parts of the field
(d) in none of the above directions
Ans:b


42. According to Curie’s law, the magnetic susceptibility of a substance at an absolute
temperature T is proportional to?
(a) T2
(b) 1/T
(c) T
(d) 1/T2
aNS (B)

Kerala Public Service Commission LDC Exam 2011 Solved Paper

Kerala Public Service Commission(PSC) LDC Exam 2011 Solved Paper

. The only Indian Governor General was
(A) C. Rajagopalachari
(B) Pattabhi Sitaramayya
(C) Rajendra Prasad
(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Ans : (A)


2. Which plan became the basis for Indian independence ?
(A) Cripps Plan
(B) Wavell Plan
(C) Mountbatten Plan
(D) None of the above
Ans : (C)


3. Which part of Indian Constitution has been described as the soul of the Constitution ?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Directive Principle of State Policy
(C) The Preamble
(D) Right to Constitutional Remedies
Ans : (D)


4. Name the Indian who attended all the Three Round Table Conferences—
(A) B. R. Ambedkar
(B) Mahatma Gandhi
(C) Mohammad Ali Jinnah
(D) Tej Bahadur Sapru
Ans : (A)


5. Rabindranath Tagore relinquished his Nighthood as a measure of protest against
(A) Partition of Bengal
(B) Press Act of 1910
(C) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
(D) Salt Laws
Ans : (C)


6. The 52nd amendment to the Constitution of India deals with
(A) Defection
(B) Reservation
(C) Election
(D) Protection of minorities
Ans : (A)


7. The Panchayati Raj was recommended by
(A) The Government of India Act, 1935
(B) The Cripps Mission of 1942
(C) The Indian Independence Act, 1947
(D) Balwantrai Mehta Committee Report, 1957
Ans : (D)


8. The President of India can nominate
(A) 10 members to Rajya Sabha
(B) 2 members to Rajya Sabha
(C) 15 members to Rajya Sabha
(D) 12 members to Rajya Sabha
Ans : (D)


9. UNO has fixed the target for ‘Education for All’ till the year
(A) 2012
(B) 2013
(C) 2014
(D) 2015
Ans : (D)


10. The subjects on which both the Centre and State Governments can legislate are contained in
(A) The Union List
(B) The State List
(C) The Concurrent List
(D) Residuary List
Ans : (C)


11. Which State Legislative Assembly has the maximum strength (number of members) ?
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) West Bengal
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : (D)


12. The concept of ‘Fundamental Rights’ enshrined in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from which country’s constitution ?
(A) France
(B) Britain
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Russia
Ans : (C)


13. The maximum strength of Lok Sabha has been fixed at
(A) 540
(B) 545
(C) 552
(D) 555
Ans : (C)


14. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on
(A) August 15, 1947
(B) June 30, 1948
(C) November 26, 1949
(D) January 26, 1950
Ans : (C)


15. In India the Chairman of the Public Accounts Committee is appointed by
(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(D) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
Ans : (C)


16. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the introduction of money bill ?
(A) Money bill is introduced in Rajya Sabha
(B) It can be introduced in either of the Houses of Parliament
(C) It cannot be introduced in the Lok Sabha
(D) It is introduced in the Lok Sabha
Ans : (D)


17. Who is the Chairman of the Planning Commission ?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Finance Minister
(D) Governor of Reserve Bank
Ans : (B)


18. The minimum age required for election to Rajya Sabha is
(A) 25 years
(B) 30 years
(C) 32 years
(D) 35 years
Ans : (B)


19. Which one of the following taxes is levied and collected by the Union but distributed between Union and States ?
(A) Corporation tax
(B) Tax on income other than on agricultural income
(C) Tax on railway fares and freights
(D) Customs
Ans : (B)


20. Sikkim became a new state by
(A) 30th Amendment
(B) 34th Amendment
(C) 35th Amendment
(D) 36th Amendment
Ans : (C)


21. On which Indian river is the highest bridge of the world being constructed ?
(A) Chenab
(B) Satluj
(C) Jhelum
(D) Beas
Ans : (A)


22. Match List-I (category) with List-II (54th National Film Award winners) and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists
List-I
(a) Best Feature Film
(b) Best Popular Film
(c) Best Children Film
(d) Best Hindi Film
List-II
1. Care of Footpath
2. Khosla ka Ghosla
3. Pullijaman
4. Lage Raho Munnabhai
Codes :
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 3 2 4
(B) 3 4 1 2
(C) 3 2 4 1
(D) 4 2 1 3
Ans : (B)


23. In which district of Uttar Pradesh has the first Police Museum of the country been established ?
(A) Allahabad
(B) Agra
(C) Ghaziabad
(D) Lucknow
Ans : (C)


24. The Commercial Banks were Nationalised in
(A) 1947
(B) 1951
(C) 1969
(D) 1992
Ans : (C)


25. Asia’s first human DNA Bank has been set up in
(A) New Delhi
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Lucknow
(D) Mumbai
Ans : (C)


26. The distribution of finances between centre and states is done on the recommendation of
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Finance Commission
(C) Reserve Bank of India
(D) NABARD
Ans : (B)


27. In which one of the following districts of Uttar Pradesh has the Indian Carpet Technology Institute been established ?
(A) Agra
(B) Mirzapur
(C) Moradabad
(D) Sant Ravi Das Nagar
Ans : (D)


28. Which of the following Banks is first in establishing its branch in China ?
(A) Bank of Baroda
(B) Punjab National Bank
(C) State Bank of India
(D) UCO Bank
Ans : (C)


29. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan covers
(A) all children in the age group 3–10
(B) all children in the age group 4–8
(C) all children in the age group 5–15
(D) all children in the age group 6–14
Ans : (D)


30. Swavalamban Scheme is concerned with providing
(A) employment to rural women folk
(B) employment to urban women folk
(C) employment to disabled persons
(D) providing training and skills to women
Ans : (D)


31. Mixed economy means
(A) existence of both small and big industries
(B) existence of both private and public sectors
(C) existence of both primary and secondary sectors
(D) none of the above
Ans : (B)


32. How many IITs will be set up in the 11th Five Year Plan ?
(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans : (C)


33. Among the following which country has the highest life expectancy at birth (in years) ?
(A) Japan
(B) Denmark
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Switzerland
Ans : (A)


34. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists
List-I (Place)
(a) Vishakhapatnam
(b) Muri
(c) Gurgaon
(d) Panki
List-II (Industry)
1. Automobile
2. Ship-building
3. Fertiliser
4. Aluminium
Codes :
—(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 4 3 1
Ans : (B)


35. Which among the following is a public sector Commercial Bank ?
(A) ICICI Bank
(B) HDFC Bank
(C) Indian Overseas Bank
(D) UTI Bank
Ans : (C)


Kerala Public Service Commission Deputy Collector 2011 Solved  Paper

Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission MPSC Preliminary Examination Previous Year Solved Paper

Madhya Pradesh Public Service Commission MPSC Preliminary Examination Previous Year Solved Paper

1. How many days will picture message stay in private inbox ?
(A) 28 Days
(B) 30 Days
(C) 15 Days
(D) 7Days


2. Which of the following memories has the shortest access time ?
(A) Cache memory
(B) Magnetic bubble memory
(C) Magnetic core memory
(D) Random access memory


3. 'Microsoft Word' is an example  of-
(A) An operation system
(B) An input device
(C) A processing device
(D) Application software


4. What do you understand by hacking?
(A) Searching
(B) Security
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of these


5. Size of virtual memory depends  on-
(A) Address lines
(B) Database
(C) Disc space
(D) All of these

6. Which of the following is not a search engine?
(A) Google
(B) Altavista
(C) Science direct
(D) Orkut


7. ........ .is the process of carrying out commands.
(A) Fetching
(B) Storing
(C) Decoding
(D) Executing


8. What can we send through video  mail?
(A) Graphics
(B) Video clips
(C) Video messages
(D) All of these


9. Which of the following temples is not located at Khajuraho ?
(A) Kandaria Mahadev
(B) Chaunsatha Yogini
(C) Dashavatar
(D) Chitragupta


10. Alha-Udal belonged to­
(A) Chanderi
(B) Vidisha
(C) Mahoba
(D) Panna


11. Find the next letter of the following series- J, F, M, A, M, J, J .
(A) J
(B) A
(C) S
(D) 0


12. Who built Gujari Mahal ?
(A) Suraj Sen
(B) Man Singh
(C) Tej Karan
(D) Akbar


13. Where is Tansen's Tomb loca­ted?
(A) Gwalior
(B) Shivpuri
(C) Bhopal
(D) Agra


14. Which leader of Madhya Pradesh became the Defence Minister first and later Home Minister in Nehru's Cabinet?
(A) Prakash Chandra Sethi
(B) Ravi Shankar Shukla
(C) Kailash Nath Katju
(D) Dwarka Nath Mishra


15. In 1956, which part of Madhya Pradesh was merged in Maha­rashtra?
(A) Malwa
(B) Chhattisgarh
(C) Vidarbha
(D) Chanderi


16. Which tourist spot of Madhya Pradesh is most popular for foreign tourists?
(A) Sanchi
(B) Datia
(C) Orchha
(D) Khajuraho


17. Which dynasty gave India its famous temples of Khajuraho ?
(A} Parmaras
(B) Mauryas
(C) Chandelas
(D) Holkars


18. What is the full form of e-mail?
(A) Electronic mail
(B) Electric mail
(C) Electromagnetic mail
(D) None of these


19. Prime Minister Manmohan Singh is a-
(A) Member of Lok Sabha from Punjab
(B) Member of Rajya Sabha from Punjab
(C) Member of Rajya Sabha from Rajasthan
(D) Member of Rajya Sabha from Assam


20. How much percentage of votes did the Republican candidate get in Presidential elections in America held in 2008 ?
(A) 52 per cent
(B) 50·5 per cent
(C) 47 per cent
(D) 51 per cent


21. Saina Nehwal played-
(A) Badminton quarter final in Beijing Olympics
(B) Semi-final in Beijing Olymp­ics
(C) All Women Badminton final
(D) All Women Tennis final


22. How many ways in which a batsman can get out in cricket?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10


23. Jeev Milkha Singh is a­
(A) Chess Player
(B) Golf Player
(C) Grand Prix Racer
(D) Racer


24 Present Chairman of Rajya Sabha is-
(A) Meera Kumar
(B) N azma Heptullah
(C) Hamid Ansari
(D) Pratibha Patil


25. How many test wickets has Anil Kumble taken?
(A) 618
(C) 620
(B) 619
(D) 621


26. For how many years did Gandhiji live in South Africa?
(A) 20 years
(B) 21 years
(C) 16 years
(D) 15 years


27. How much population of Madhya Pradesh lives below poverty line ?
(A) 36·5 per cent
(B) 37·5 per cent
(C) 38·5 per cent
(D) 40 per cent


28. Geologically Madhya Pradesh is a part of-
(A) Vindhyan Rocks
(B) Gondwanaland
(C) Deccan Trap
(D) None of these


29. Cotton Research Centre of M. P. is situated in-
(A) Khandwa
(B) Khargone
(C) Jabalpur
(D) Indore


30. The highest temperature on the earth is recorded at-
(A) Equator
(B) 10° North Latitude
(C) 20° North Latitude
(D) 25° North Latitude


31. Summer Solstice falls every year on-
(A) 23rd September
(B) 21st March
(C) 4th July
(D) 21st June


32. Planet Saturn is-
(A) Cooler than Pluto
(B) Cooler than Neptune
(C) Hotter than Neptune
(D) Hotter than Jupiter


33. What is the distance of earth from the sun ?
(A) 107·7 million mln
(B) 142·7 million mln
(C) 146·6 million mln
(D) 14% million mln


34. What is the number of oceans on the earth?
(A) 5
(C) 7
(B) 6
(D) None of these


35. India is in size-
(A) Fifth largest cotmtry of the world
(B) Sixth largest conntry of the world
(C) Seventh largest country of the world
(D) None of the above


36. Which acid substan,ce is fonnd in Vinegar ?
(A) Lactic Acid
(B) Citric Acid
(C) Maleic Acid
(D) Acetic Acid


37. What is the pH value of human blood?
(A) 7·36 to 7·42
(B) 8·36 to 8·42
(C) 6·36 to 6·42
(D) None of these


38. Who discovered penicillin?
(A) Alexander Graham Bell
(B) Alexander Fleming
(C) Christofer McDonald
(D) Albert Einstein


39. Who signed Indo-US nuclear deal in 2008 from Indian side?
(A) Prime Minister Manmohan Singh
(B) President Pratibha Patil
(C) Foreign Minister Pranab Mukharjee
(D) Committee for Nuclear deals


40. In which event Abhinav Bindra won gold medal ?
(A) Blank Aim Shooting
(B) Air Rifle Shooting
(C) Heavy Rifle Shooting
(D) Pistol Shooting


41. Total length of Narmada river in Madhya Pradesh is-
(A) 1077 kIn
(B) 1071 kIn
(C) 1075 kIn
(D) 1072 kIn


42. Who is Pushpa Kamal Oahal 'Prachanda' ?
(A) Hindi Poet
(B) Revolutionary thinker
(C) Nepalese Prime Minister
(D) None of these


43. Who won bronze medal in Bei­jing Olympics 2008 Wrestling?
(A) Akhil Kumar
(B) Susheel Kumar
(C) JoginderSingh
(D) Vijay Singh


44. Who is Mahinda Rajapaksa ?
(A) Sri Lankan Ambassador in India
(B) Sri Lankan Foreign Minister
(C) Sri Lankan Army Chief
(D) Sri Lankan President


45. On which date did Chandrayaan enter the lunar orbit?
(A) 3 November
(B) 6 November
(C) 8 November
(D) None of these


46. What is lithotrypsi ?
(A) Art of writing on stones
(B) Breaking of kidney stone through rays
(C) Carbon dating of stones
(D) Trimming stones for household use


47. Word 'blog' is combination of two words-
(A) Web-log
(B) Wave-log
(C) Web-blog
(D) Wed-lock


48. What is the name of NASA vehicle on Mars ?
(A) Phoenix
(B) Roger
(C) Florida
(D) John Canady


49. What is fever?
(A) Inflammation of skin
(B) Inflammation of blood platelets
(C) Pain
(D) Inflammation of blood cells


50. Whom did Vishwanathan Anand defeat to become World Champion in 2010 ?
(A) Gary Kasparov
(B) Gary Karpov
(C) Veselin Topalow
(D) Anatoli Kaspov


Answer:


1. (B) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (C) 6. (C) 7. (A) 8. (D) 9. (C) 10. (C) 11. (A) 12. (B) 13. (A) 14. (C)15. (C) 16. (D) 17. (C) 18. (A) 19. (D) 20. (C) 21. (A) 22. (D) 23. (B) 24. (C) 25. (B) 26. (B) 27. (D) 28. (C) 29. (D) 30. (A) 31. (D) 32. (C) ,33. (D) 34. (A) 35. (C) 36. (D) 37. (A) 38. (B) 39. (C) 40. (B) 41. (A) 42. (C) 43. (B) 44. (D) 45. (C)
46. (B) 47. (A) 48. (A) 49. (D) 50. (C)

Corporation Bank Clerk Exam 2010 English Solved Paper

Corporation Bank Clerk Exam 2010 English Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–10) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.


There were three big fish living in a beautiful lake by the city. They were very close friends. All three of them were very different from one another. The first fish believed in fate. He thought things cannot be changed and what has to happen will happen, no matter what. The second fish was intelligent. He thought he knew how to solve a problem with his intelligence. The third fish was the wise one. He thought long and hard before acting.


One day, the fish were happily playing around in the water when the wise fish overheard a fisherman talking to another. “Look at that one, what a big fish… This lake is full of big fish. Let us come back tomorrow and catch them.”


On hearing the news, the fish hurriedly swam to his friends. “Let us get out of this lake before those fishermen come back. I know of a canal that can take us to another lake.” The intelligent fish said “I can take care of myself if the fishermen come.” The fish who believed in fate said “whatever has to happen will happen, I was born in this lake and I am not going to leave it. “The wise fish did not want to risk his life and so he took the route through the canal and left his friends.


The fishermen came back the next day and cast their nets. They caught many fish along with the two friends who stayed behind. The intelligent fish acted as if he was dead and escaped. The fishermen threw him back into the lake with all the other dead fish that were caught in the net. However, the fish who believed in fate was caught and killed.


1. Why did the fishermen come back to the lake the next day ?
(A) To admire its beauty
(B) To catch the nice big fish
(C) To take a break
(D) To count the fish
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)


2. Why did the wise fish leave the lake ?
(A) He overhead the fishermen talking about catching them
(B) He was tired of living in the lake
(C) He had a fight with his friends
(D) He was asked to leave by the Head fish
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)


3. How did the intelligent fish save his life ?
(A) He pleaded with the fishermen to let him go
(B) He escaped to another lake
(C) He jumped off the net
(D) He pretended to be dead
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)


4. What shocking news did the wise fish give his friends ?
(A) That he did not want to be friends with them any more
(B) That he was sick and dying
(C) That he had overheard the fishermen’s plans of catching them
(D) That he wanted to leave the lake
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)


5. How did the wise fish escape ?
(A) By taking a ride on the fishermen’s boat
(B) By pretending to be dead
(C) Only (A) and (B)
(D) From the canal
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)


6. What is the moral of the story ?
(A) Always listen to your friends
(B) Slow and steady wins the race
(C) Follow the crowd
(D) Intelligence is stronger than power
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)




Directions—(Q. 7-8) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold is used in the passage.


7. Close
(A) Near
(B) Best
(C) Determined
(D) Secure
(E) Good
Ans : (B)


8. Route
(A) Road
(B) Lane
(C) Path
(D) Side
(E) Direction
Ans : (C)


Directions—(Q. 9-10) Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.


9. Cast
(A) Release
(B) Retrieve
(C) Laid
(D) Scattered
(E) Sorted
Ans : (B)


10. Risk
(A) Disrupt
(B) Endanger
(C) Save
(D) Disturb
(E) Gamble
Ans : (C)


Directions—(Q. 11–15) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e., ‘No Error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)


11. I am not scared (A) / to be travelling (B) / in the dark (C) / alone at night. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (B)


12. The elevator in the building (A) / is under repair, (B) / we regret for (C) / the inconvenience caused. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (E)


13. I am thinking (A) / you were aware (B) / of the rules and regulations (C) / before joining. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (A)


14. The father divided (A) / the property equally (B) / between his son (C) / and daughter. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (D)


15. I knows a very good doctor (A) / in my village (B) / who will be able to (C) / cure your disease. (D) No Error (E)
Ans : (A)


Directions—(Q. 16–20) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.


16. The judge used his ………… in settling the matter.
(A) know
(B) tactics
(C) discretion
(D) brains
(E) bias
Ans : (B)


17. The reward was shared ………the members of the cricket team.
(A) among
(B) for
(C) to
(D) against
(E) between
Ans : (A)


18. One has to be very …………during the monsoons as the road becomes slippery.
(A) smart
(B) cautious
(C) presentable
(D) prepared
(E) healthy
Ans : (B)


19. The captain is very ………… of his cricket team.
(A) pride
(B) good
(C) eager
(D) proud
(E) strict
Ans : (D)


20. The boy was rewarded for his ………… behaviour.
(A) pleasing
(B) best
(C) good
(D) neat
(E) correct
Ans : (C)


Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each question below four words which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D) have been printed, of which, one word may be wrongly spelt. The letter of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt, mark (E) i.e., ‘All Correct’ as the answer.


21. (A) Courier
(B) Compress
(C) Accept
(D) Venture
(E) All Correct
Ans : (E)


22. (A) Discretion
(B) Expensive
(C) Cancelled
(D) Unsucessful
(E) All Correct
Ans : (D)


23. (A) Consenses
(B) Methodical
(C) Ledger
(D) Luxury
(E) All Correct
Ans : (A)


24. (A) Beautiful
(B) Obedient
(C) Knowlege
(D) Dimension
(E) All Correct
Ans : (C)


25. (A) Essential
(B) Priority
(C) Abundance
(D) Happiness
(E) All Correct
Ans : (E)


Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
(1) The wise man told them to cut down the tree and divide the fruits between themselves.
(2) Ram and Sham were best of friends.
(3) Ram was very hurt. “He would let Sham take ownership of the tree rather than cut it down”.
(4) One day, they had a dispute among themselves regarding the mango tree.
(5) On hearing this, the wise man declared Ram the rightful owner of the mango tree.
(6) They went to the wise man in the village to solve their problem.


26. Which of the following should be the first sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) 6
(E) 1
Ans : (A)


27. Which of the following should be the second sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 6
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 3
Ans : (C)


28. Which of the following should be the fourth sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 5
(D) 3
(E) 4
Ans : (A)


29. Which of the following should be the fifth sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 5
(C) 1
(D) 3
(E) 4
Ans : (D)


30. Which of the following should be the sixth (last) sentence after the rearrangment ?
(A) 1
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 3
(E) 2
Ans : (B)


Directions—(Q. 31–40) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.


Long time ago, there lived a group of rats under a tree …(31)…. One day a group of tigers in search of water passed that way and …(32)… the homes of the rats. As a result, many of them were crushed to …(33)… The king of rats decided to …(34)… the tiger king and requested him to use another route.


The tiger king …(35)… to this and took another route to the water, so the lives of the rats were …(36)…. One day, a group of …(37)… came to the forest and trapped the tigers in huge nets. Then, the tiger king suddenly remembered the king of …(38)…. He summoned one of the tigers of his herd which had not been trapped to go and …(39)… the king of rats.


On listening to the tiger, the king of the rats took his entire group of mice and they cut open the nets which …(40)… the tiger herd. In this way the tigers were set free by the rats.


31. (A) Silently
(B) Mildly
(C) Destructively
(D) Coldly
(E) Peacefully
Ans : (E)


32. (A) Infested
(B) Destroyed
(C) Built
(D) Contaminated
(E) Entered
Ans : (B)


33. (A) Fall
(B) Powder
(C) Sleep
(D) Death
(E) Torture
Ans : (D)


34. (A) Approach
(B) Teach
(C) Serve
(D) Lure
(E) Said
Ans : (A)


35. (A) Rejoiced
(B) Agreed
(C) Convinced
(D) Ignorant
(E) Tempted
Ans : (B)


36. (A) Saved
(B) Ruined
(C) Harmed
(D) Numbered
(E) Troubled
Ans : (A)


37. (A) Friends
(B) Fishermen
(C) Animals
(D) Hunters
(E) Kings
Ans : (D)


38. (A) Elephants
(B) Tigers
(C) Rats
(D) Forest
(E) City
Ans : (C)


39. (A) Address
(B) Glorify
(C) Banish
(D) Rescue
(E) Contact
Ans : (E)


40. (A) Touched
(B) Housed
(C) Fascinated
(D) Exposed
(E) Trapped
Ans : (E)

Corporation Bank Probationary Officers Exam 2010 English Solved Paper

Corporation Bank Probationary Officers Exam 2010 English Solved Paper

English Language Bank Po Solved Paper

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.


There are various sectors in India that are to be assessed for their strengths, weaknesses, opportunities and threats.


The total population is over 1 billion which will increase to 1•46 billion by 2035 to cross China. The huge population will result in higher unemployment and deterioration of quality. Literacy, in India is yet another factor to be discussed. According to 1991 census, 64•8% of the population was illiterate. The major downtrend of education is due to child labour which has spread all over India and this should be totally eradicated by way of surveillance and a good educational system implemented properly by the Government.


Pollution is one more threat to the environment and for the country’s prospects. This has been experienced more in urban areas mainly in metropolitan cities. The water pollution by the sewage seepage into the ground water and improper maintenance will lead to various diseases which in turn will affect the next generation. In most of the cities there is no proper sewage disposal. The Government has to take effective steps to control population which, in turn, will minimize the pollution.


Poverty questions the entire strength of India’s political view and minimizes the energetic way of approach. The shortfall of rains, enormous floods, unexpected famine, drought, earthquake and the recent tsunami hit the country in a negative way. The proactive approach through effective research and analytical study helps us to determine the effects in advance. Proper allocation of funds is a prerequisite. In developed countries like U.S., Japan precautionary methods are adopted to overcome this, but it has to be improved a lot in our systems.


Increased population is one of the major reasons for poverty and the Government is unable to allocate funds for basic needs to the society. India has nearly 400 million people living below the poverty line and 90% of active population is in informal economy. The children are forced to work due to their poverty and differential caste system. They work in match industry for daily wages, as servants, mechanics, stone breakers, agricultural workers, etc. To prevent child labour, existing laws which favour the Anti Child Labour Act should be implemented by the Government vigorously.


More population results in cheap cost by virtue of the demand supply concept. Most of the foreign countries try to utilize this factor by outsourcing their business in India with a very low capital. According to U.S., India is a ‘Knowledge pool’ with cheap labour. The major advantage is our communication and technical skill which is adaptable to any environment. The cutting edge skill in IT of our professionals helps the outsourcing companies to commensurate with the needs of the consumers in a short span. The major competitors for India are China and Philippines and by the way of an effective communication and expert technical ability, Indians are ahead of the race. The major Metropolitan states are targeting the outsourcing field vigorously by giving various amenities to the outsourcing companies like tax concession, allotting land etc., to start their businesses in its cities without any hurdles. Thereby most of the MNCs prefer India as their destinations and capitalize the resources to maximize their assets. Infrastructure is another key factor for an outsourcing company to start a business in a particular city. It includes road, rail, ports, power and water. The increased input in infrastructure in India is very limited where China’s record is excellent.


India in earlier days gave more importance to the development of industry and less importance to other departments. But the scenario has quite changed now-a-days by allocating a special budget of funds for security. This is because of the frightening increase in terrorism all around the world especially emerging after the 9/11 terror attack in U.S. In the last ten years, budget towards the development of military forces is higher when compared to others. It shows that the threat from our neighbouring countries is escalating. India has to concentrate more on this security factor to wipe out the problem in the way of cross-border terrorism.


Making India a developed country in 2020 is not an easy task. India has to keep in check a variety of factors in order to progress rapidly. To quote China as an example is that they demolished an old building to construct a very big port to meet future demands, but India is still waiting for things to happen. The profits gained by India through various sectors are to be spent for the development and welfare of the country. India’s vision for a brighter path will come true not only by mere words or speech, but extra effort is needed at all levels to overcome the pitfalls.


1. Which of the following, according to the author, is/are a result(s) of increased population in India ?
1. Pollution
2. Poverty
3. Unemployment
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 2
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3


2. Why, according to the author, has the Indian Government allotted more funds to strengthen the military forces ?
(A) To improve security in order to counter increasing terrorism
(B) As the security in India over the past ten years was grossly inadequate
(C) As the U.S. too has strengthened its military forces after the 9/11 attack
(D) As the industry is developed enough and is not in need of any more funds
(E) None of these




3. What is the author’s main objective in writing this passage ?
(A) To exhort the Government to garner support from its neighbouring countries
(B) To suggest to the Government to follow China’s example blindly thereby bringing about rapid development
(C) To highlight the plight of the poor
(D) To discuss the problems of child labour and suggest suitable remedies
(E) To bring forth the problems associated with India’s development and to suggest measures to counter them


4. Why, according to the author, is India one of the favourite destinations for investment by outsourcing companies ?
1. Shorter response time for clients.
2. Better technical skills.
3. Availability of cheap labour.
(A) Only 1
(B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) Only 1


5. Which of the following is/are true in the context of the passage ?
1. India leads the way in the amount invested in the development of infrastructure.
2. Political system in India is not influenced by poverty.
3. Indian population would increase by approximately 50 per cent in the next twenty five years.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3


6. Which of the following is/are the facility(ies) available to MNCs investing in India ?
1. Easy availability of land.
2. Better infrastructure than China.
3. Tax Concessions.
(A) Only 3
(B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) None of these


7. Which of the following, according to the author, is a result of poverty in India ?
(A) Lack of a robust security system
(B) Child labour and the resulting dearth of educated youth
(C) Floods, famines and other calamities
(D) Rapid increase in population
(E) None of these


8. How, according to the author, can the effects of floods, famines, droughts, etc. be minimized ?
(A) By limiting pollution thereby reducing the chances of such events taking place
(B) By educating the children about the ill effects of such calamities who in turn will help during the time of need
(C) By following the U.S. system of providing relief to its citizens
(D) By allotting proper funds for research which can predict the outcome of such calamities and thus design relief measures
(E) None of these


Directions—(Q. 9–12) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.


9. SURVEILLANCE
(A) Spying
(B) Cameras
(C) Security
(D) Observation
(E) Alertness


10. PREREQUISITE
(A) Result
(B) Association
(C) Necessity
(D) Factor
(E) Mystery


11. PROSPECTS
(A) Assimilation
(B) Demand
(C) Future
(D) Brochure
(E) Diagnosis


12. COMMENSURATE
(A) Match
(B) Extracting
(C) Contemplating
(D) Request
(E) Employing


Directions—(Q. 13–15) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage ?


13. LIMITED
(A) Abundant
(B) Complete
(C) Flowing
(D) Inadequate
(E) Encompassing


14. DIFFERENTIAL
(A) Solitude
(B) Homogeneous
(C) Synonymous
(D) Unique
(E) Different


15. VIGOROUSLY
(A) Simply
(B) Regularly
(C) Roughly
(D) Softly
(E) Leniently


Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below should replace the phrase given in bold in the following sentence to make it meaningful and grammatically correct. If the sentence is correct as it is and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.


16. Banks charge differently rate of interest depending on the size of the loan.
(A) Difference in rate of interests
(B) Differently what rate of interest
(C) Different rates of interest
(D) The different rate of interest
(E) No correction required


17. It is necessary that we take any steps to reduce pollution soon.
(A) We should take every
(B) We have taken no
(C) Us to take any
(D) We take some
(E) No correction requireds


18. It is too early to say how the impact the new tax will have on investors.
(A) What impact
(B) That the impact
(C) How much impacts
(D) What are the impacts of
(E) No correction required


19. Kindly ask his advice regarding the various health insurance policies presently available.
(A) Him to advise that
(B) Regarding his advise
(C) That he should advice
(D) About his advice
(E) No correction required


20. Unfortunately many of our towns and cities do have more good transportation Systems.
(A) Have a good
(B) Not have good
(C) Not have much good
(D) Not having better
(E) No correction required


Directions—(Q. 21–25) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below—
(1) With all the bid information being available and tracked online, corruption has considerably reduced.
(2) Today, most i.e. over ninety-five per cent households, in the city enjoy Broad Band connection.
(3) All city contracts are now bid for online.
(4) Over twenty years ago the city government, central government and the private Sector made a concerned effort to shift the economy to include IT
(5) As our cities expand and become more complex, such a system will make Governance more manageable.
(6) This level of connectedness has changed not only the city’s economy but also how it is governed and how business is conducted.


21. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5


22. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 6


23. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6


24. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5


25. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6


Directions—(Q. 26–35) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E). (Ignore errors of punctuations, if any)


26. Some genuine issues exist (A) / with the newly adopted (B) / system and needs to (C) / be examined seriously. (D) No error (E)


27. Whether or not to confront (A) / them about their role (B) / in the matter is a decision (C) / which is yet to take. (D) No error (E)


28. The government is still in the (A) / process of finalized new policy (B) / guidelines for the allocation of land (C) / to private sector organizations. (D) No error (E)


29. According to government estimates (A) / at least four millions tonnes of sugar (B) / will have to be imported (C) / this year because of a poor monsoon. (D) No error (E)


30. In our experience people usually (A) /value things that they have to (B) / pay off more than those that (C) / they receive free of cost. (D) No error (E)


31. At present China is the (A) / world’s leader manufacture (B) / of environment friendly products (C) / such as electric cars and bicycles. (D) No error (E)


32. Over eighty per cent from us (A) / feel that if we had taken (B) / some corrective measures earlier (C) / the crisis could have been averted. (D) No error (E)


33. The manager of that city branch (A) /cannot handle it with the help of (B) /only two personnel as (C) / business has increased substantially. (D) No error (E)


34. With the literacy rates in this (A) /region as low as ten per cent (B) /we need to encourage (C) / local people to build schools. (D) No error (E)


35. While providing such facilities (A) /online makes it covenient (B) / and easily accessible for customers (C) / we face several challenges. (D) No error (E)


Directions—(Q. 36–40) In each question below a sentence with four words printed in bold type is given. These are lettered as (A), (B), (C) and (D). One of these four words printed in bold may be Either wrongly spelt or inappropriate in the context of the sentence. Find out the word which is wrongly spelt or inappropriate if any. The letter of that word is your answer. If all the words printed in bold are correctly spelt and also appropriate in the context of the sentence, mark (E) i.e. ‘All correct’ as your answer.


36. The bank’s fluctuating (A) performance over the prior (B) year has been a major (C) cause (D) for concern. All correct (E)


37. An economy relies (A) on its access (B) to dependable (C) and affordable (D) sources of energy. All correct (E)


38. Researches have used data prevalent (A) to manufacturing companies to illustrate (B) the harmful (C) impacts (D) of technology on the environment. All correct (E)


39. Such a situation (A) is neither feasible (B) nor desirable (C) in a democratic country like ours. (D) All correct (E)


40. The gradual (A) withdrawal (B) of such safety (C) mechanisims (D) will affect small and medium industries the most. All correct (E)


Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.


The world’s climate has always changed and species have evolved accordingly to survive it. The surprising fact about the …(41)… between evolution and global warning …(42)… that it is not liner. …(43)… temperatures alone are not …(44)… of evolution. Evolution is also the …(45)… of seasonal changes. As the environment …(46)… those species which don’t adapt …(47)… to exist.


But the sheer …(48)… of manmade climate change today is …(49)…. ‘Bad things are happening’ and by one …(50)… global warning could threaten upto one-third of the world’s species if left unchecked. In fact a lot of the species which will be able to survive are the ones we consider pests like insects and weeds.


41. (A) difference
(B) similarity
(C) argument
(D) relationship
(E) alliance


42. (A) being
(B) seems
(C) mainly
(D) besides
(E) is


43. (A) however
(B) mounted
(C) rising
(D) elevating
(E) inclining


44. (A) means
(B) triggers
(C) responses
(D) threats
(E) stimulus


45. (A) results
(B) precursor
(C) resistance
(D) cause
(E) provocation


46. (A) conserves
(B) stifles
(C) predicts
(D) changes
(E) emerges


47. (A) continue
(B) halt
(C) cease
(D) terminate
(E) discontinue


48. (A) luck
(B) value
(C) coolapse
(D) pace
(E) attention


49. (A) threatened
(B) pursued
(C) unprecedented
(D) record
(E) debated


50. (A) forecast
(B) chance
(C) pattern
(D) occasion
(E) imagination