Canara bank PO General Awareness Solved Papers

Canara bank PO General Awareness Solved Papers

1. As per the recent reports published in newspapers / magazines, India ranks at a lower level in Hunger

Index. The Hunger Index is measured on which of the following indicators?

2. Child Malnutrition

3. Rate of Child Mortality

4. Rate of Literacy

5. No. of people who are calories deficient

(A) Only 1 and 2

(B) Only 2 and 3

(C) Only 1, 2 and 4

(D) AliI, 2, 3 and 4

(E) None of these

2. Who amongst the following economists gave the concept of 'economies of scale', which says 'many

goods and services can be produced more cheaply in long series' ?

(A) Edward C. Prescott

(B) Amartya Sen

(C) Gary S. Becker

(D) Edmund S. Phelps

(E) Paul Krugman

3. As per the recent report which of the following countries emerged as India's top trading partner

during 2008-09 ?

(A) Russia

(B) Brazil

(C) USA

(D) China

(E) None ofthese

4. In its mid term review of the economy the Reserve Bank of India pegged the country's economic

growth for fiscal year 2008-09 at which of the following levels?

(A) 6%

(B) 6.5%

(C) 7%

(D) 7.7%

(E) 8.7%

5. Which of the following countries has elected Joe Biden as its Vice President in its general elections

held in November 2008 ?

(A) Britain

(B) Canada

(C) Australia

(D) USA

(E) None of these

6. Very often we read in newspapers / magazines about 'Sovereign Wealth Funds'. Which of the

following is / are the correct description of the same?

1. These are the funds or the reserves of a government or central bank of a country which are invested

further to earn profitable returns.

2. These are the funds, which were accumulated by some/ people over the years buf were not put in

active circulation as they retain them as Black Money for several years.

3. The funds which are created to be used as relief funds or bailouts packages are known as sovereign

funds.

(A) Both 2 and 3 only

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) Only 1

(E) None of these

7. The Govt. of India has decided to declare which of the following rivers a National River?

(A) Brahmaputra

(B) Yamuna

(C) Ganga

(D) Kaveri

(E) None of these

8. Very often we read about Special Economic Zones (SEZs) in news-papers. What was the purpose of

promoting SEZs in India?

a. They are established to pro-mote exports.

b. They are established to attract investments from foreign countries.

c. They are established to help poorest of the poors in India as the activities of these zones are reserved

only for poors and those living below poverty line.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only3

(D) Both 1 and 2 only

(E) None of these

9. The Asian Cooperation Dialogue Conference of 31 nations was organized in October 2008 in-

(A) New Delhi

(B) Seoul (S. Korea)

(C) Beijing (China)

(D) Dhaka (Bangladesh)

(E) Astana (Kazakhastan)

10. The White Tiger is a book written by-

(A) Arnitav Ghosh

(B) Arundhati Roy

(C) V. S. Naipaul

(D) Kiran Desai

(E) Aravind Adiga

11. The Ratio of the Cash Reserves that the banks are required to keep with RBI is known as-

(A) Liquidity Ratio

(B) SLR

(C) CRR

(D) Net Demand & Time Liability

(E) None of these

12. A Rs. 35000 crore JSW Steel Plant was inaugurated in November 2008 in-

(A) Kota

(B) Nandigram

(C) Pune

(D) Jamshedpur

(E) Salboni

13. The Govt. of India in order to provide some relief to the exporters announced a relief package

ofRs.-

(A) 1000 crores

(B) 2500 crores

(C) 4000 crores

(D) 5000 crores

(E) 7000 crores

14. Which of the following awards/ honours was conferred upon Pt. Bhimsen Joshi recently?

(A) Man of the year

(B) Kala Shikhar Samman

(C) Dada Saheb Phalke Award (D) Kalidas Samman

(E) Bharat Ratna

15. Which of the following Space Craft was launched recently to prepare a 3 dimensional Atlas of the

lunar surface and also for chemical mapping of entire lunar surface?

(A) PSLV-II

(B) Chandrayan II

(C) Chandrayan III

(D) Chandrayan-I

(E) None of these

16. As per new revised rules now Foreign Direct Investment in Insurance sector is possible upto the

limit of-

A) 26%

(B) 40%

(C) 49%

(D) 70%

(E) None of these

17. Who amongst the following players recently became the first ever Indian to win a World

Championship in Badminton?

(A) P. Gopichand

(B) Saina Nehwal

(C) Aparna Popat

(D) Nandu M. Natekar

(E) None of these

18. Which of the following countries got Wan chuck as its fifth King recently?

(A) Bhp.tan

(B) Nepal

(C) Japan

(D) Spain

(E) None of these

19. As per the news reports members of the SAARC agreed to establish a 'SAARC Food Bank' to

ensure food security for members in case of any emergency. Which of the following nations agreed to

provide maximum quantity of food for the bank ?

(It will provide 1,53,200 tonnes) PDI August/2009/316

(A) India

(B) Bhutan

(C) Sri Lanka

(D) Pakistan

(E) None of these

20. The availability of Cash and other cash like marketable instruments that are useful in purchases and

investments are commonly known as-

(A) Cash crunch

(B) Liquidity

(C) Credit

(D) Marketability

(E) None of these

21. India recently signed an agreement with which of the following countries so that they are allowed

to deal smoothly with the problem of fishermen who cross International Maritime Boundary Line?

(A) Bangladesh

(B) Sri Lanka

(C) Pakistan

(D) Myanmar

(E) None of these

22. The World Development Report 2009 was released recently. Who publishes the World

Development Report every year?

(A) Asian Development Bank

(B) World Bank

(C) International Monetary Fund

(D) United Nations Organizations

(E) None of these

23. The 3rd IBSA Summit took place in New Delhi in October 2008. Which of the following

statements about the same is / are correct?

1. Leaders agreed to set a trilateral trade target of US$ 25 million by 2015.

2. Leaders adopted a 50 point Delhi Summit Declaration which has their views on global governance.

3. IBSA agreed to provide its membership to China and Russia from 2011

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) All 1,2 & 3

(E) None of these

24. As per newspaper reports India's Trade gap is showing a negative growth since last few months

'Trade Gap' means what?

(A) Gap between total GDP and total consumption

(B) Gap between total Imports and total Exports

(C) Gap between available liquidity and expected demand in next five months

(D) Gap between budgeted revenue collection and actual collection of the same

(E) None of these

25. Mr. Kgalema Motlanthe who was on a visit to India in October 2008 is the-

(A) President of South Africa (B) Prime Minister of South Africa

(C) President of Kenya

(D) Prime Minister of Kenya

(E) Deputy Director General of UNO

26. As per the reports published in newspapers India allowed to open Cross-LaC Trade after a gap of

about 60 years. Which of the following routes was thrown open for the same?

(A) Srinagar-Muzaffarabad

(B) Kolkata-Dhaka

(C) Varanasi-Kathmandu

(D) Imphal-Yangon

(E) None of these

27. Who amongst the following scored his 40th century in the Test cricket while playing against

Australia in Nagpur in November 2008?

(A) Sachin Tendulkar

(B) Ani! Kumble

(C) M. S. Dhoni

(D) Harbhajan Singh

(E) None of these

28. Mr. Mohammed Anni Nasheed's name was in news in recent past as he has taken over as President

of-

(A) Bangladesh

(B) Maldives

(C) Malaysia

(D) Indonesia

(E) None of these

29. The financial turmoil all over the world in recent past has also put some effect on Indian economy.

What measures RBI had taken to improve the situation?

1. SLR has been reduced by one percentage points and at present is 24%

2. An advance of Rs. 25,000 crore provided to banks / financial institutions under the Agricultural debt

waiver and Debt Relief Schemes.

3. RBI allowed banks to raise their capital by issuing Investment Bonds. Almost all big banks have

issued such bond in recent past.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) All 1, 2 & 3

(E) Only 1 & 2 both

30. Shivraj Chauhan has taken over as the Chief Minister of-

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Rajasthan

(C) Bihar

(D) Chhattisgarh (E) Delhi

31. 'Jnanpith Award' is given for excellence in the field of-

(A) Music (B) Literature

(C) Sports (D) Films

(E) Social Services

32. Who amongst the following recently announced his Retirement from the cricket world?

(A) Sachin Tendulkar

(B) M. S. Dhoni

(C) Harbhajan Singh

(D) Rahul Dravid

(E) None of these

33. The second 'BIMSTEC Summit' was organized in November 2008 in-

(A) Dhaka

(B) Kathmandu

(C) Thirnpu

(D) New Delhi

(E) None of these

34. The Govt. of India recently signed an agreement with Malaysia to facilitate employment of workers

between the two countries. Which of the following was/were the reason(s) owing to which both the

nations decided to make an agreement for the same?

1. Malaysia is an important destination for Indian workers as Malaysia has almost 1.5 lakh Indian

workers.

2. Most of the Indians are employed with the plantation and construction sectors where they were not

getting a fair treatment.

3. In the last few years there was a strong opposition to employ Indians as the unemployment rate in

Malaysia is almost 30%

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 2

(C) Only 3

(D) Both 1 & 2 only

(E) None of these

35. Besides USA and France, India has also a Civil Nuclear Deal with-

(A) Britain

(B) Russia

(C) Germany

(D) Canada

(E) Australia

36. Which of the following countries signed an agreement with Russia so that, the country did not

attack on it in future and Russia also did not do the same?

(A) Georgia

(B) Croatia

(C) Slovakia

(D) Tajikistan

(E) Mangolia

37. The third Commonwealth Youth Games were organized in October 2008 in-

(A) Chandigarh

(B) Bangalore

(C) Pune

(D) Lucknow

(E) Jaipur

38. Miss Karla Paula Henry won which of the following titles 'when she participated in an event in

November 2008 in Philippines?

(A) Miss Earth

(B) Miss World

(C) Miss Universe

(D) Miss Asia Pacific

(E) None of these

39. Who amongst the following is the author of the book 'Development as Freedom' ?

(A) Arnartya Sen

(B) C. Rangarajan

(C) Y. V. Reddy

(D) Bimal Jalan

(E) None of these

40. Who amongst the following cine star of India became the first upon whom Malaysian title 'Datuk'

was conferred recently?

(A) Arnitabh Bachchan

(B) Akshay Khanna

(C) Salman Khan

(D) Shah Rukh Khan

(E) None of these

41. Mr. Stephen Harper whose name was in news recently is the-

(A) President of New Zealand

(B) President of Australia

(C) President of Sweden

(D) President of Canada

(E) None of these

42. Pravasi Bharatiya Diwas is observed on which of the following days?

(A) 9th March

(B) 9th February

(C) 9th January

(D) 19th February

(E) 19th January

43. Gold Mines in India are located mainly in-

(A) Kolar

(B) Raniganj

(C) Jadugoda

(D) Veeranam

(E) None of these

46. Ms. Kiran Desai is the author of which of the following books ?

(A) God of small things

(B) The inheritance of loss

(C) Midnight's children

(D) A House for Mr. Biswas (E) None of these

47. Which of the following is the duration of the present Five-Year Plan ?

(A) 2008-12

(B) 2009-13

(C) 2007-12

(D) 2006-11

(E) None of these

48. Which of the following Ministries was Mr. Shivraj Patil looking after immediately prior to his

resignation from the cabinet?

(A) Foreign Affairs

(B) Home Affairs

(C) Rural Development 

(D) Agriculture

(E) None of these

49. Which of the following schemes launched by the Govt. of India provides a guaranteed 100 days l

employment to rural employment seekers in India ?

(A) Bharat Nirman

(B) Swarnjayanti Grameen Rozgar Yojana

(C) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act

(D) National Food for Work Programme

(E) None of these

50. 'Satyam' which was in news recently was operating in which of the following areas ?

(A) Textile

(B) Mining

(C) Pharma

(D) Automobiles

(E) None of these

Answers:

1. (C) 2. (E) 3. (D) 4. (D) 5. (D) 6. (D) 7. (C) 8. (D) 9. (E) 10. (E) 11. (C) 12. (E) 13. (D) 14. (E) 15.(D) 16. (C) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (B) 21. (B) 22. (B) 23. (B) 24. (B) 25. (A) 26. (A) 27. (A) 28.(B) 29. (A) 30. (A) 31. (B) 32. (E) 33. (D) 34. (D) 35. (B) 36. (A) 37. (C) 38. (A) 39. (A) 40. (D) 41.(D) 42. (C) 43. (A) 44. (C) 45. (E) 46. (B) 47. (C) 48. (B) 49. (C) 50. (E)

CDAC Previous Year Question Paper

CDAC Previous Year Question Paper

1.The programming language that was designed for specifying algorithm
Address
ASCII
ALGOL
None of these options


2. _____ contains the addresses of all the records according to the contents of the field designed as the record key.
Index<——ans
Subscript
Array
File


3. _________ symbol is used for Processing of data.
Oval
Parallelogram<——ans
Rectangle
Diamond


4. __________ is the analysis tool used for planning program logic
Protocol
None of these options
PROLOG
Pseudocode


5. Machine language has two part format the first part is__________ and the second part is __________
OPCODE,OPERAND<——ans
OPERAND,OPCODE
DATA CODE,OPERAND
OPERAND,CODEOP


6. Language Primarily used for internet-based applications
ADA
C++
JAVA;——ans
FORTRAN


7. _________ is a point at which the debugger stops during program execution and awaits a further command.
Memory Dump
Watch point<——ans
Break point
None of these options

8. ________do not contain any program logic and are ignored by the language Processor
Protocol
Virus
Comment
None of these options


9. The component of data base management system is ________
Data definition Language
Data manipulation Language
Data definition Language and Data manipulation Language
None of these options


10. The quality of Algorithm is judged on the basis of_________
Time requirement
Memory Requirement
Accuracy of solution
All of these options<——ans


11. Advantages of using flow charts is
Effective Analysis
Efficient Coding
Time consuming
Effective Analysis and Efficient Coding<—–ans
Programming in C


12. The Real constants in C can be expressed in which of the following forms
Fractional form only
Exponential form only
ASCII form only
Both Fractional and Exponential forms<——ans


13. The program, which translates high-level program into its equivalent machine language program, is called
Transformer
Language processor
Converter
None of these options<——ans<!–[if !supportEmptyParas]–>


14. Consider the following statements. i.Multiplication associates left to right ii.Division associates left to right
iii.Unary Minus associates right to left
iv.subtraction associates left to right All are true <——ans
only i and ii are true
all are false
only iii and iv are true


15. What will be the value of variable a in the following code?
unsigned char a;
a = 0xFF + 1;
printf("%d", a);
0xFF
0×100
0 <——ans
0×0


16. What is the output of the following program?
#include <stdio.h>
void main()
{
printf("\n10!=9 : %5d",10!=9);
}
1<——ans
0
Error
None of these options

17. #include<stdio.h>
void main()
{
int x=10;
(x<0)?(int a =100):(int a =1000);
printf(" %d",a);
}
Error<——ans
1000
100
None of these options


18. Which of the following shows the correct hierarchy of arithmetic operations in C
(), **, * or /, + or –
(), **, *, /, +, –
(), **, /, *, +, –
(), / or *, – or + <—–Ans


19. What is the output of the following code?
#include<stdio.h>
void main()
{
int a=14;
a += 7;
a -= 5;
a *= 7;
printf("\n%d",a);
}
112<——ans
98
89
None of these options


20. What is the output of the following code? #include<stdio.h>
#define T t
void main()
{
char T = `T`;
printf("\n%c\t%c\n",T,t);
}
Error
T t
T T
t t

Central Bank of India CBI 2011 English Solved Papers

Central Bank of India CBI 2011 English Solved Papers

Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are printed in bold to help you to locate them while answering some of the questions.


The Sun, while going on his daily rounds saw a princess and fell in love with her. Whenever he could slip away from the heavens he would take human form and go down to the princess to spend some time with her. The princess too became quite fond of him and would wait for him to come. One day the Sun decided to send her a blood-red ruby as a token of his love for her. He put the gem in a silk bag, and calling a crow that was flying past, asked the bird to deliver the gem to his beloved. Crows had milky white feathers in those days and it was considered auspicious if a crow came anywhere near you. So the Sun was pleased that he had found a crow to deliver the gem. As the crow sped through the sky with the silken bag, the aroma of food lured him. Looking down the crow saw that a wedding feast was in progress, and immediately it was distracted from its mission. Food was one thing it could never resist !


Alighting on a tree nearby, it hung the bag on a twig and went off to find some food. While the crow was feasting, a merchant passing by saw the bag on the tree, and knocked it down with a pole. When he opened the bag and saw its contents he almost swooned in joy. Quickly pocketing the ruby, he filled the bag with dry cow dung that was lying there, and then deftly returned the bag to the branch. It was all done so quickly that the crow missed all the action. After having its fill, it flew up to the tree, and picking up the bag took it to the person it was intended for. The princess was in the garden. When the crow gave her the bag, she took it eagerly, knowing that it was from the Sun. But when she saw its contents she reeled back in shock and anger. Believing that it was the Sun’s way of telling her that he did not care for her, she flung the bag away, rushed to her palace, and never came out again. When the Sun learnt of what had happened he was furious.
So great was his anger that when he turned his scorching gaze on the crow, its feathers were burned black. Its feathers have been black ever since. The ruby did not stay with the man who stole it. It fell out of his pocket and rolled into a deep pit. Men have been trying to dig it out ever since. Many precious stones have been found in the process, making Myanmar one of the richest sources of rubies and sapphires, but the ruby that the Sun sent to the princess is yet to be found.


1. What did the Sun send for the princess as a token of his love ?
(A) He sent her the crow
(B) He sent her dry cow dung
(C) He sent her a red ruby
(D) He gifted her the city of Myanmar
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)


2. Why did the princess fling the gift away ?
(A) She did not like rubies
(B) The crow was known to bring bad luck
(C) She had found cow dung in the bag
(D) She thought the Sun was playing a cruel joke on her
(E) She had wanted the Sun to personally deliver it
Ans : (C)


3. What led to the discovery of precious stones in Myanmar ?
(A) Humans discovered the stones in their search for the lost ruby
(B) The crow spread the news of the lost ruby
(C) The princess went in search of the lost ruby and discovered other precious stones
(D) The merchant went in search of the ruby that fell off his pocket
(E) The merchant’s clumsiness led to the discovery of precious stones
Ans : (A)




4. While on its way to the princess, the crow was distracted by—
(A) The merchant calling out to him
(B) The wedding that was taking place below
(C) The ruby that the Sun sent for the princess
(D) The temptation of the smell of food
(E) The huge crowd at the wedding
Ans : (D)


5. Why did the Sun send his gift for the princess along with the crow?
(A) The princess loved crows
(B) The crow was the only bird available at the time
(C) The crow was considered to be an auspicious bird
(D) The crow knew where the princess lived
(E) The Sun trusted the crow
Ans : (C)


6. The joy of the merchant on finding the ruby was short lived because—
(A) He did not succeed in stealing the ruby
(B) The ruby fell out of his pocket
(C) The crow returned just in time and caught him red handed
(D) He soon discovered many more precious stones
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)


7. How did the crow get its black colour ?
(A) The crow was punished by the Sun for its clumsiness
(B) The crow was burned black by the scorching gaze of the angry Sun
(C) The crow was not considered auspicious any more
(D) The crow was cursed by the merchant
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)


8. What could be an appropriate title for the story ?
(A) The Careless Black Crow
(B) Myanmar and its Mineral Riches
(C) The Sun and the Princess
(D) The Depressed Princess
(E) The Sun and the Ruby
Ans : (C)


9. What was the crow’s mission ?
(A) To deliver the gift to the princess
(B) To attend the wedding
(C) To make the Sun angry
(D) To keep the princess in her palace
(E) To protect the princess from the harmful Sun
Ans : (A)


10. What message did the princess get after opening the bag ?
(A) That the Sun truly loved her
(B) That the crow was an evil bird
(C) That the crow was playing a joke on her
(D) That the Sun did not love her anymore
(E) That the cow dung was a token of the Sun’s love for her
Ans : (D)


Directions—(Q. 11–13) Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.


11. Token
(A) Symbol
(B) Insurance
(C) Slip
(D) Assurance
(E) Investment
Ans : (A)


12. Deftly
(A) Skillfully
(B) Blindly
(C) Eagerly
(D) Rightfully
(E) Innocently
Ans : (A)


13. Auspicious
(A) Religious
(B) Lucky
(C) Fulfilling
(D) Charming
(E) Normal
Ans : (A)


Directions—(Q. 14–15) Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.


14. Scorching
(A) Cool
(B) Heated
(C) Warm
(D) Silent
(E) Composed
Ans : (A)


15. Furious
(A) Beaming
(B) Angry
(C) Forgiving
(D) Calm
(E) Sulking
Ans : (D)


Directions—(Q. 16–25) Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The letter of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is (E) i.e., ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors of punctuation, if any.)


16. When we (A) / reached the shops, (B) / we find that (C) / they were all closed. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)


17. Poor people (A) / has no money (B) / therefore they cannot afford (C) / proper medical facilities. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)


18. The course is for (A) / anyone who is interested (B) / in learning (C) / about computers. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)


19. We were surprised (A) / that she participated (B) / at the performance (C) / held at NCPA. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (C)


20. As soon as (A) / I getting my (B) / first salary (C) / I spent all my money. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)


21. The principal (A) / introducing me (B) / to some of her (C) / teaching staff. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)


22. The doctors said that (A) / he was making good progress (B) / and would not (C) / need an operation. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (E)


23. Instead of (A) / to buy books, (B) / I borrow them (C) / from the library. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (B)


24. By the times (A) / we reached the classroom, (B) / the lecture had (C) / already begun. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (A)


25. The Indian government (A) / should make sure that (B) / men and women are (C) / given equal opportunities. (D) No error (E)
Ans : (D)


Directions—(Q. 26–30) Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blanks to make the sentence meaningfully complete.


26. I was annoyed …… John for arriving late.
(A) on
(B) about
(C) by
(D) for
(E) with
Ans : (E)


27. We are …… the possibility of buying our own house.
(A) judging
(B) initiating
(C) threatening
(D) applying
(E) considering
Ans : (E)


28. The student did not pay …… to the instructions that were given to her in class.
(A) ear
(B) awareness
(C) notice
(D) attention
(E) closure
Ans : (D)


29. The young boy was unhurt …… for a minor injury to his knee.
(A) less
(B) except
(C) also
(D) just
(E) while
Ans : (B)


30. There is …… chance of seeing her again …… she leaves.
(A) perhaps, when
(B) also, as
(C) little, before
(D) full, therefore
(E) more, after
Ans : (A)


Directions—(Q. 31–35) In each question below four words which are lettered (A), (B), (C) and (D) have been printed, of which, one word may be wrongly spelt. The letter of that word is the answer. If all the four words are correctly spelt, mark (E) i.e. “All Correct” as the answer.


31. (A) Accept
(B) Reciept
(C) Frequent
(D) Gesture
(E) All Correct
Ans : (B)


32. (A) Justise
(B) Practice
(C) Menace
(D) Variance
(E) All Correct
Ans : (A)


33. (A) Complaint
(B) Alerted
(C) Cheated
(D) Hunged
(E) All Correct
Ans : (D)


34. (A) Remorse
(B) Noble
(C) Upsurge
(D) Incline
(E) All Correct
Ans : (E)


35. (A) Blister
(B) Warrant
(C) Arrest
(D) Mannual
(E) All Correct
Ans : (D)


Directions—(Q. 36–40) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.
1. At first he got scared, but then he thought, “I have never worshipped her that is why I am not able to get anything from my land.”
2. One day unable to tolerate the summer heat, he went to rest under a big banyan tree.
3. He rushed to his village and placed his humble offering of milk in a bowl before the snake.
4. Vishnu Raman was a poor Brahmin and a farmer by profession.
5. The next day when he returned, he was rewarded with a gold coin in the bowl he left behind.
6. Just as he was preparing to lie down he saw a huge Cobra swaying with his hood open.


36. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 5
(D) 4
(E) 6
Ans : (A)


37. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) 3
(E) 5
Ans : (B)


38. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 2
(D) 1
(E) 4
Ans : (D)


39. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 6
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 2
(E) 5
Ans : (C)


40. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement ?
(A) 4
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (D)


Directions—(Q. 41–50) In the following passage, there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.


Once upon a time there lived a peacock and a tortoise in close proximity and they became the best of friends. The peacock lived on a tree on the …(41)… of a stream which was the home of the tortoise. It was a daily …(42)… for the peacock to dance near the stream after he had a drink of water. He would display his great plumage for the amusement of his friend. One unfortunate day, a bird-catcher who was on the …(43)… caught the peacock and was about to take him away to the market. The unhappy bird begged his captor to allow him to bid his friend the tortoise good-bye, as it would be the …(44)… time he would see him. The bird-catcher gave in to his request and took him to the tortoise. The tortoise was in tears to see his friend held …(45)….


The tortoise asked the birdcatcher to let the peacock go; but he laughed at the request, saying that it was his means of livelihood. The tortoise then said, “If I give you an expensive present, will you let my friend go ?” “Certainly,” answered the bird-catcher. Whereupon, the tortoise …(46)… into the water and in a few seconds came up with a handsome pearl, which he presented to the bird-catcher. This was beyond the man’s expectations, and he let the peacock go immediately. A short time after, the bird-catcher came back and told the tortoise that he thought he had not paid enough for the release of his friend, and …(47)…, that unless a match to the pearl was obtained for him, he would catch the peacock again. The tortoise, who had already …(48)… his friend to shift to a distant jungle on being set free, was greatly …(49)… by the greed of the bird - catcher. “Well,” said the tortoise, “if you insist on having another pearl like the one I gave you, give it back to me and I will fish you an exact match for it.” The greediness of the bird-catcher prevented his reasoning and he …(50)… gave the pearl to the clever tortoise. The tortoise swam out with it saying, “I am no fool to give you another pearl, you’re greediness has left you with nothing.


41. (A) fence
(B) brim
(C) banks
(D) base
(E) outlet
Ans : (C)


42. (A) fact
(B) lifestyle
(C) phenomenon
(D) adventure
(E) routine
Ans : (C)


43. (A) prowl
(B) guard
(C) rounds
(D) duty
(E) alert
Ans : (B)


44. (A) right
(B) last
(C) perfect
(D) appropriate
(E) justified
Ans : (B)


45. (A) captive
(B) custody
(C) affectionately
(D) badly
(E) carelessly
Ans : (A)


46. (A) collapsed
(B) dived
(C) sunk
(D) drowned
(E) slipped
Ans : (B)


47. (A) wished
(B) secured
(C) contemplated
(D) debated
(E) threatened
Ans : (E)


48. (A) advised
(B) left
(C) disowned
(D) excluded
(E) wanted
Ans : (A)


49. (A) aware
(B) enraged
(C) superstitious
(D) touched
(E) tolerant
Ans : (B)


50. (A) deftly
(B) clumsily
(C) selfishly
(D) affectionately
(E) promptly
Ans. (E)

Download GPAT 2011 question paper with solution

Download GPAT 2011 question paper with solution

Q.1 Quinoline alkaloids are biosynthesized via which one of the following pathways?
(A) Shikimic acid - tyrosine (B) Shikimic acid - tryptophan
(C) Shikimic acid - cathinone (D) Shikimic acid - phenylalanine
Ans: B


Q.2 Khellin is an active constituent of which one of the following plants?
(A) Prunus serona (B) Tribulus terrestis
(C) Ammi visnaga (D) Vanilla planifolia
Ans: C


Q.3 Which one of the following compounds is useful for the stimulation of cell
division and release of lateral bud dormancy?
(A) Zeatin (B) 2,4-Dichlorophenoxyacetic acid
(C) Indoleacetic acid (D) Picloram
Ans: A


Q.4 A powdered drug has the following microscopic characters:
Anther cells, arenchyma, pollen grains, phloem fibers, volatile oil cells and
stone cells. The powder is obtained from which of the followings?
(A) Clove bud powder (B) Clove bud powder with stalk
(C) Mother Clove (D) None of the above
Ans: B


Q.5 Which of the following ergot alkaloids is water soluble and shows blue
fluorescence?
(A) Ergosine (B) Ergotamine (C) Ergocristine (D) Ergometrine
Ans: D


Q.6 Goldbeater's skin test is used to detect the presence of which one of the
following classes of compounds?
(A) Tannins (B) Steroids (C) Glycerides (D) Resins
Ans: A


Q.7 Phenylethylisoquinoline is the precursor of which of the following alkaloids?
(A) Colchicine (B) Papaverine (C) Emetine (D) Cephaline
Ans: A


Q.8 Arrange the following fatty acids in decreasing order of their unsaturation
(highest to lowest):
[P] Stearic [Q] Oleic acid [R] Linolenic acid [S] Linoleic acid


(A) P>Q>R>S (B) S>R>P>Q (C) R>S>Q>P (D) Q>P>R>S
Ans: C


Q.9 Each Of the following options lists a phytoconstituent, its phytochemical
grouping, pharmacological activity and corresponding semisynthetic analogue.
Find a MISMATCHING option.
(A) Podophyllotoxin, lignan, anticancer, etoposide
(B) Sennoside, anthraquinone, laxative, sinigrin
(C) Atropine, alkaloid, anticholinergic, homatropine
(D) THC. terpenophenolic, psychoactive, nabilone
Ans: B


Q.10 Which of the following mechanisms is NOT related to platelet aggregation
inhibitory action?
(A) ADP receptor antagonism
(B) Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonism
(C) Phosphodiesterase inhibition
(D) Prostacvclin inhibition
Ans: C


Q.11 Which of the following species is being inactivated by the enzyme Dipeptidyl
peptidase-4?
(A) Oxytocin (B) Vasopressin (C) Incretin (D) Glucagon
Ans: D


Q.12 Two genetic types of Cannabis i.e. drug type and Hemp type are cultivated.
[P] Drug type cannabis is rich in (-)A-trans-tetrahydrocannabinol .
[Q] Hemp type cannabis is rich in cannabidiol
[R] Drug type cannabis is rich in cannabidiol -
[S] Hemp type cannabis contains elongated bast fibres
Which one of the given statements is correct?
(A) P is true, Q is true, R is true, S is true
(B) P is true, Q is false, R is false, S is true
(C) P is true, Q is true, R is false, S is true
(D) P is false, Q is false, R is true, S is false


Q.13 Inhibition/induction of which of the following Cytochrome P450enzyme system is
most likely to be involved in important drug-druginteractions?
(A) CYP3A4 (B) CYP2D6 (C) CYP2C9 (D) CYP1A2
Ans: A


Q.14 Choose the correct statement about the given four diseases?
[P] Cardiomyopathy [Q] Rheumatoid arthritis
[R] Myasthenia gravis [S] Ulcerative colitis
(A) Q & S are autoimmune disorders
(B) P & Q are autoimmune disorders
(C) P & R are not autoimmune disorders
(D) R & S are not autoimmune disorders
Ans: A


Q.15 Most of the emergency contraceptives have one of the following active
ingredients?
(A) Estradiol (B) Norethindron
(C) Misoprostol (D) Levonorgesterel
Ans: D




Q.16 Antiretroviral Raltegravir is unique, because of which of its following
actions?
(A) Integrase inhibition (B) CCR5 Co-receptor antagonism
(C) Fusion inhibition (D) Reverse transcriptase inhibition
Ans: A


Q.17 Which one of the followings is NOT an example of G-protein coupled receptor?
(A) Muscarinic cholinergic receptor (B) Alpha adrenoceptor
(C) Nicotinic cholinergic receptor (D) Beta adrenoceptor
Ans: C


Q.18 Which of the following statements is FALSE for artemisinin?
(A) It is a sesquiterpene lactone endoperoxide
(B) It is a drug of choice in prophylaxis of malaria
(C) It does not cure relapsing malaria
(D) It is useful in treatment of cerebral falciparum malaria
Ans: B


Q.19 Which of the following antibiotics produces concentration dependent
bactericidal action and also possesses post-antibiotic effect?
(A)Ceftazidime (B) Azithromycin (C) Amikacin (D) Piperacillin
Ans: C


Q.20 What is chemotaxis?
(A) Toxicity of chemicals
(B) Taxonomy of chemicals
(C) Inhibition of Inflammation
(D) Movement of leucocytes in inflammation
Ans: D


Q.21 Which of the followings used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis is NOT a
biologic response modifier?
(A) Anakinra (B) Leflunomide (C) Etanercept (D) Infliximab
Ans: B


Q.22 Which of the followings is a noncompetitive inhibitor of the enzyme reverse
transcriptase in HIV?
(A) Lamivudine (B) Nevirapine (C) Abacavir (D) Tenofovir
Ans: B


Q.23 Which one of the followings is a beta lactamase inhibitor?
(A) Penicillanic acid (B) Embonic acid
(C) Cephalosporanic acid (D) Clavulanic acid
Ans: D


Q.24 Neural tube defects may occur by which one of the following anti-seizure drugs?
(A) Ethosuximide (B) Vigabatrin (C) Valproic acid (D) Primidone
Ans: C


Q.25 Which one of the following drying methods is commonly used in pharma industry
for drying of soft shell capsules?
(A) Truck drying (B) Fluid bed drying
(C) Vacuum drying (D) Microwave drying
Ans: C


Q.26 If C is the concentration of dissolved drug and Cs is the saturation
concentration. In which case the sink conditions are said to be maintained?
(A) C < 20% of Cs (B) C > 20% of Cs
(C) C < 10% of Cs (D) C >10% of Cs
Ans: C


Q.27 All of the followings are indications for use of ACE inhibitors EXCEPT for one.
Identify that.
(A) Hypertension (B) Myocardial infarction
(C) Left ventricular dysfunction (D) Pheochromocytoma
Ans: D


Q.28 Which water is used for hand washing in a change room of pharmaceutical
manufacturing plant?
(A) Potable water (B) Purified water
(C) Disinfectant water (D) Soap water
Ans: A


Q.29 hich one of the followings does NOT afford a macromolecular inclusion compound?
(A) Zeolites (B) Dextrins (C) Silica gels (D) Cyclodextrins
Ans: C


Q.30 Which condition does not apply as per Indian law while conducting single dose
bioavailability study of an immediate release product?
(A)Sampling period should be atleast three t1/2 ei
(B)Sampling should represent pre-exposure, peak exposure and post-exposure phases
(C)There should be atleast four sampling points during elimination phase
(D)Sampling should be continued till measured AUC is atleast equal to 80% of AUC
Ans: C


Q.31 Which of the following isothem are produced when the heat of condensation of
successive layers is more than the heat of adsorption of first layer?
(A) Type III and IV
(B) Type II and V
(C) Type I and III
(D) Type III and V
Ans: D


Q.32 The minimal effective flow rate of air in Luminar Flow hood should be not less
than how many cubic feet per minute?
(A) 10 (B) 50 (C) 100 (D) 1000
Ans: C


Q.33 Which of the following pumps is used in handling of corrosive liquids?
(A) Turbine pump (B) Volute Pump (C) Air binding pump (D) Baltic pump
Ans: D


Q.34 Convert 90% v/v alcohol to Proof strength. Choose the correct answer.
(A) 57.77° under proof (B) 57.77° over proof
(C) 47.41° over proof (D) 47.41° under proof
Ans: B


Q.35 What is the Heat of vaporization of water at 100:
(A) 2790 cal/ mole (B) 7290 cal / mole
(C) 7920 cal/mole (D) 9720 cal/mole
Ans: D


Q.36 Which of the followings act as a non-ionic emulsifying agent?
(A) Triethanolamine oleate
(B) Polyoxyethylene sorbitan monooleate
(C) N-Cetyl-N-ethylmorpholinium ethosulfate
(D) Dioctyl sulphosuccinate
Ans: B


Q.37 Which of the following Schedules include shelf life of drugs?
(A) Schedule F (B) Schedule M (C) Schedule G (D) Schedule P
Ans: D


Q.38 By addition of which of the followings the shells of soft gelatin capsules may
be made elastic?
(A) Polyethylene glycol (B) Sorbitol
(C) Propylene glycol (D) Dibutyl phthalate
Ans: B


Q.39 Department of Transport Test (DOT) is performed for which of the followings?
(A) Strip packing (B) Aerosols
(C) Injection packing (D) Glass containers
Ans: B


Q.40 How many mL of 50% (w/v) dextrose solution and how many mL of 5% (w/v) dextrose
solution are required to prepare 4500 mL of a 10% (w/v) solution?
(A) 500 mL of 50% and 4000 mL of 5%
(B) 1000 mL of 50% and 3500 mL of 5%
(C) 4000 mL of 50% and 500 mL of 5%
(D) 1500 mL of 50% and 3000 mL of 5%
Ans: A


Q.41 P-Glycoprotein pump is responsible for which one of the followings?
(A) Transporting the drugs from the enterocytes into the gut lumen
(B) Transporting the drugs from gut lumen into enterocytes
(C) Transporting the drugs from oral mucosa into blood capillaries
(D) Transporting the drugs from Peyer's patches into the gut lumen.
Ans: A


Q.42 The first stage of wetting on addition of a granulating agent to the powders is
characterized by which one of the followings?
(A) Capillary state (B) Pendular state
(C) Funicular state (D) Droplet state
Ans: A


Q.43 The degree of flocculation of a suspension is 1.5 and the sedimentation volume
is 0.75. What will be the ultimate volume of deflocculated suspension?
(A) 2.0 (B) 1.5 (C) 0.75 (D) 0.5
Ans:


Q.44 A drug is administered to a 65 Kg patient as 500 mg tablets every 4 hours.
Half- life of the drug is 3 h, volume of distribution is 2 liter/Kg and oral
bioavailability of the drug is 0.85. Calculate the steady state concentration
of the drug?
(A) 5.05mcg/ml (B) 4.50 mcg/ml (C) 3.53 mcg/ml (D) 3.00 mcg/ml
Ans: D


Q.45 Statement [X] : Hofmeister series grades coagulating power of electrolytes
as per their ionic size.
Statement [Y] : The relative coagulating power is given by:
[P] Al+++ > Ba++ [Q] Li- > F- [R] NH4+ > Na+
Choose the correct statement :
(A) Statement X is true but P, Q and R are false in Statement Y
(B) Statement X is false and P, Q and R are false in Statement Y
(C) Statement X is true and Q and R are false in Statement Y
(D) Statement X is false and P is false in Statement Y
Ans: D


Q.46 Larger values of Ky in the Heckel Plot indicate formation of what quality of
tablets?
(A) Harder tablets (B) Softer tablets
(C) Fluffy tablets (D) Brittle tablets
Ans: A


Q.47 Which is NOT applicable to protein binding?
(A) Klotz reciprocal plot (B) Sandberg modified equation
(C) Blanchard equation (D) Detli plot
Ans: D


Q.48 According to USP, the speed regulating device of the dissolution apparatus
should be capable of maintaining the speed within limits of what % of the
selected speed?
(A) 1% (B) 2% (C) 4% (D) 5%
Ans: C


Q.49 Which statement is NOT true for steam distillation?
(A) It is also called differential distillation
(B) It can be used for separation of immiscible liquids -
(C) It can be applied for volatile substances
(D) It can be used for separation of miscible liquids
Ans: D


Q.50 What is Primogel?
(A) Substituted HPMC for direct compression
(B) Modified microcrystalline cellulose for direct compression
(C) Hydro gelling polymer for gel formation
(D) Modified starch for disintegration
Ans: D


Q.51 Statement [P] : Soft gelatin capsules contain 12-15 % moisture.


Statement [Q] : Hard gelatin capsule shells contain 6-10 % moisture.
Choose the correct statement?
(A) Both of the above statements P & Q are true
(B) Both of the above statements P & Q are false
(C) Statement P is true and Q is false
(D) Statement P is false and Q is true
Ans: B


Q.52 A drug whose solubility is 1 g/L in water, when given orally at a doseof 500 mg
is absorbed upto 95% of the administered dose. The drug belongs to which class
according to the BCS classification?
(A) Class I (B) Class II (C) Class III (D) Class IV
Ans: B


Q.53 The area of clear opening of any two successive sieves according to Tyler
standard is in the ratio of,
(A) 1 : 4 (B) 1 : 6 (C) 1: √2 (D) 1: √3
Ans: C


Q.54 Iodine-131 as sodium iodide solution is used as a radiopharmaceutical for
diagnostic and therapeutic purposes. Its usage is dependent on the release of
the following emissions:
[P] Alpha particles [Q] Positrons [R] Beta emission [S] Gamma radiation
Choose the correct combination of statements?
(A) R&S (B) Q&S (C) P&R (D) P&S
Ans: C


Q.55 Alkenes show typical electrophilic addition reactions. If an
electronwithdrawing group is attached to one of the carbons bearing the double
bond, what will happen to the mechanism of the addition reaction?
(A) It remains electrophilic (B) It becomes free radical addition
(C) It becomes pericyclic reaction (D) It becomes nucleophilic
Ans:


Q.56 Five-membered heteroaromatic compounds show a much higher rate of electrophilic
aromatic substitution reactions than the six-membered ones. This is due to
which one of the following reasons?
(A) Five-membered heteroaromatic compounds have higher circulating
electrondensity in the ring than the six-membered ones
(B) Five-membered heteroaromatic compounds have lower circulating electron
density in the ring than the six-membered ones
(C) Five-membered rings are smaller in size than the six membered ones which
affects their reaction rates
(D) Six membered heteroaromatic rings are flat while the five-membered ones are
puckered
Ans: A


Q.57 Arrange the following Lowry-Bronsted acids into their decreasing order of
acidity (highest to lowest)?
[P] C2H5OH [Q] H3C-CsCH [R] H20 [S] CH3NH2
(A) R>P>Q>S (B) P>R>Q>S (C) P>Q>R>S (D) R>Q>P>S
Ans: A


Q.58 Aprotic polar solvents increase the rate of SN2 reactions manifold. Enhancement
in the rate of such reactions is due to which one of the following effects?
(A) Solvation of the anion by the solvent leaving the cation unaffected
(B) Solvation of both of the ionic species
(C) Desolvation of the cation and solvation of the anion
(D) Solvation of the cation by the solvent leaving the anion unaffected
Ans: D


Q.59 In context of complexometry (complexometric titrations), the two terms labile
and inert complexes, are used frequently. Choose the correct statement about
them?
(A) Labile complexes are formed instantly while inert complexes take hours or
days in their formation
(B) Labile complexes take much longer tine in formation than inert complexes
(C) Labile complexes get hydrolyzed in water immediately while inert complexes
are stable in water
(D) Labile complexes get decomposed on mild heating in aqueous solutions while
inert complexes do not decompose
Ans: C


Q.60 In colorimetric estimation of a drug, the following sequence of reactions is
carried out: treatment of the aqueous solution of the drug with sodium nitrite
solution in acidic medium followed by addition of sulphamic acid and then
treatment with N-(l-naphthyl)ethylene- diamine in slightly basic medium to
obtain a pink colour; which is measured at a fixed wavelength to correlate the
quantity of the drug with the optical density. Identify the drug under
estimation?
(A) Streptomycin sulphate (B) Thiamine hydrochloride
(C) Dexamethasone (D) Sulphamethoxazole
Ans: D


Q.61 In the electrochemical series, the standard reduction potentials of copper and
zinc are + 0.337 V and - 0.763 V, respectively. If the half cells of both of
these metals are connected externally to each other through an external circuit
and a salt bridge, which one of the following processes will take place?
(A) Zinc metal electrode will start cussohing.in solution while copper ions will
start depositing on the copper electrode.
(B) Copper metal electrode will start dissolving in solution while zinc ions
will start depositing on the zinc electrode
(C) Both of the metal electrodes will start dissolving in the solution
(D) Both types of ions will start depositing on their respective electrodes
Ans: A


Q.62 Indicators used in complexometric titrations are chelating agents. Choose the
correct statement about them?
(A) Indicator-metal ion complex should have higher stability than EDTA-Metal ion
complex
(B) Indicator-metal ion complex should have lower stability than EDTA-Metal ion
complex
(C) Indicator-metal ion complex should have equal stability as EDTA-Metal ion
complex
(D) Stability of the indicator-metal ion complex is not an important criterion
in complexometric titrations
Ans: B


Q.63 Name the compound used for standardization of Karl-Fisher reagent in
aquametry?
(A) Sodium tartrate dihydrate (B) Copper sulphate pentahydrate
(C) Sodium iodide (D) Sodium thiosulphate
Ans: A


Q.64 The following statements are given:
[P] Conformational isomers are interconvertible by rotation around a single
bond while configurational isomers cannot be interconverted without
breaking a bond.
[Q] Configurational isomers could be optically active or optically inactive
while conformational isomers are optically inactive
[R] Geometric isomers must have a double bond in their structures
[S] Geometric and optical isomers are the two distinct categories of
configurational isomers.
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P, Q & S are true while R is false (B) P, R & S are true while Q is false
(C) Q, R & S are true while P is false (D) P, Q & R are true while S is false
Ans: B


Q.65 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion (a) and the
Reason (r):
Assertion (a): Formaldehyde and benzaldehyde both undergo Cannizaro reaction
while acetaldehyde and phenyacetaldehyde undergo Aldol
condensation.
Reason (r) : Aldehydes can undergo both Cannizaro as well as Aldol
condensation while ketones undergo only Cannizaro reaction.
(A) Both (a) and (r) are false (B)(a) is true but (r) is false
(C)(a) is false but (r) is true (D) Both (a) and (r) are true
Ans: B


Q.66 Choose the correct statement for writing the sequence of amino acids in a
polypeptide?
(A) Amino terminal is to be written on the left hand side while the carboxyl
terminal is to be written on the right hand side
(B) Carboxyl terminal is to be written on the left hand side while the amino
terminal is to be written on the right hand side
(C) Any of the amino acid terminals can be written on any sides but it is to be
mentioned by specifying the amino terminal and the carboxyl terminal in
abbreviations
(D) It varies from author to author how the sequence of amino acids in a
polypeptide is to be written
Ans: A


Q.67 A carbocation will NOT show one of the following properties. Choose that.
(A) Accept an electron to give a carbene
(B) Eliminate a proton to afford an alkene
(C) Combine with a negative ion
(D) Abstract a hydride ion to form an alkane
Ans: A


Q.68 Choose the FALSE statement for E2 mechanism in elimination reactions?
(A) These reactions are accompanied by rearrangements
(B) These reactions show a large hydrogen isotope effect.
(C) These reactions show a large element effect
(D) These reactions are not accompanied by hydrogen exchange
Ans: A


Q.69 Polyamine polystyrene resins belong to which category of ion-exchange resins?
(A) Strongly Acidic Cation Exchange Resins
(B) Strongly Basic Anion Exchange Resins
(C) Weakly Acidic Cation Exchange Resins
(D) Weakly Basic Anion Exchange Resins
Ans: D


Q.70 Which amongst the following auxochromes produces a shift towards higher energy
wave length?
(A) -CH3 (B) -NHCH3 (C) -CI (D) -C=0
Ans: B


Q.71 Chloroform is stored in dark colored bottles because it is oxidized in presence
of light and air to a toxic compound. Identify that.
(A) CH2Cl2 (B) COCl2 (C) CO (D) CCl4
Ans: B


Q.72 Given are the four statements about NMB:
[P] 13CMR is a less sensitive technique than PMR [Q] Both 13C and :H have 1=1/2
[R] Precessional frequency of the nucleus is directly proportional to the
applied magnetic field
[S] Deuterium exchange studies can be performed to ascertain protons attached to
hetero atoms.
Choose the correct combination of statements.
(A) P, Q & R are true while S is false (B) R, S & Q are true while P is false
(C) S, P & Q are true while R is false (D) All are true
Ans: D


Q.73 Discrepancies in potential measurements involving factors like 'alkaline error'
and 'asymmetry potential' are associated with which of the following electrodes?
(A) Hydrogen electrode (B) Quinhydrone electrode
(C) Saturated calomel electrode (D) Glass Electrode
Ans: A


Q.74 What is the wave number equivalent of 400 nm wavelength?
(A) 0.0025 cm-1 (B) 0.25 cm-1 (C) 2500 cm-1 (D) 25000 cm-1
Ans: D


Q.75 All of the given compounds show n —> sigma* transition. Identify which one will
have the highest λmax?
(A) Methanol (B) Methylamine (C) Methyl iodide (D) Methyl bromide
Ans: D


Q.76 Which of the following statements are true for ginseng root?
[P] It is among the most traded plant material of Brazil. [Q] It is obtained
from Panax ginseng and Panax quinquefolium. [R] It is obtained from young
plants of six months to one year age. [S] It contains derivatives of
protopanaxadiol.
(A) P&Q (B) R&S (C) Q&R (D) Q & S
Ans: D


Q.77 Which of the following alkaloids is derived from tyrosine?
(A) Quinine (B) Morphine (C) Atropine (D) Ephedrine
Ans: B


Q.78 Anomocytic stomata, trichomes with collapsed cell and absence of calcium
oxalate crystals are some of the microscopic features of which plant?
(A) Digitalis (B) Hyoscyamus (C) Mentha (D) Senna
Ans: A


Q.79 A glycoalkaloid,
[P] contains sulphur in addition to nitrogen in its molecule.
[Q] is glycosidic in nature.
[R] can be hydrolysed to an alkaloid.
[S] always contains endocyclic nitrogen in its molecule.
Choose the correct option.
(A) P&R (B) Q&S (C) Q&R (D) P&Q
Ans: B


Q.80 Which of the following drugs is a triterpenoid containing root?
(A) Valerian (B) Brahmi (c) Satavari (D) Adusa
Ans: A


Q.81 The following options carry the name of the plant, part used and its family.
Find a WRONG combination.
(A) Aegle marmelos, fruit & Rutaceae
(B) Conium maculatum, fruit & Umbelliferae
(C) Glycyrrhiza glabra, root and stolon & Leguminosae
(D) Strophanthus gratus, seed & Scrophulariaceae
Ans: D


Q.82 Each of the following options lists the name of the drug, its class,
pharmacological action and plant source. Choose an option showing a WRONG
combination.
(A) Asafoetida, oleo-gum-resin, anti-flatulence, Ferula foetida
(B) Benzoin, balsam, antiseptic, Styrax benzoin
(C) Myrrh, gum-resin, antiseptic, Commiphora wightii
(D) Papaine, enzyme, proteolytic, Carica papaya
Ans: C


Q.83 Determine the correctness or otherwise mt the following Assertion [a] and the
Reason [r]:
Assertion (a) : Tannins are polyphenohc substances occurring in plant cell sap.
Hydrolysable and condensed tannins are differentiated by match
stick test.
Reason (r) : The condensed tannin- are resistant to acid hydrolysis,
therefore stain the lignin present in match stick.
(A) Both (a) and (r) are true, and r . - reason for (a)
(B) Both (a) and (r) are true, but (r is NOT :he correct reason for (a)
(C) (a) is true but (r) is NOT the correct reason for (a)
(D) Both (a) and (r) are false
Ans: B


Q.84 In acetate mevalonate pathway geranyl pyrophosphate leads to
formation of monoterpenes, the major constituents of volatile oils.
[P] Geranyl pyrophosphate contains two isoprene units
[Q] Monoterpenes have 15 carbon atoms
[R] The two isoprene units condense in head to tail fashion to give monoterpenes
[S] Isoprene unit has molecular formula of C5 H8.
Which one of the given statements is correct?
(A) P is true, Q is false, R is true, S is false
(B) P is false, Q is true, R is true, S is false
(C) P is true, Q is true, R is false, S is true
(D) P is true, Q is false, R is true, S is true
Ans: D


Q.85 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the
Reason [r]:
Assertion (a) : Castor oil is soluble in alcohol and is used as purgative.
Reason (r) : The oil contains ricinoleic acid having a hydroxyl group at
C-12 position which is responsible for its solubility in
alcohol and its purgative action.
(A) Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is NOT the correct reason for (a)
(B) (a) is true but (r) is NOT the correct reason for (a)
(C) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a)
(D) Both (a) and (r) are false
Ans: C


Q.86 Which of the following drugs does NOT induce mydriasis?
(A) Atropine (B) Ephedrine (C) Phentolamine (D) Cocaine
Ans: C


Q.87 Which of the following beta blockers has been shown clinically to reduce
mortality in patients of symptomatic heart failure?
(A) Atenolol (B) Carvedilol (C) Propranolol (D) Esmolol
Ans: B


Q.88 Rhabdomyolysis is the side effect associated with which of the following
classes of drugs?
(A) ACE inhibitors (B) Statins
(C) Calcium channel blockers (D) Sodium channel blockers
Ans: B


Q.89 Patients taking isosorbide mononitrate or nitroglycerine should be advised not
to take sildenafil. This drug-drug interaction causes which of the following
actions?
(A) Respiratory failure (B) Severe hypotension
(C) Prolongation of QT interval (D) Myocardial ischemia
Ans: B


Q.90 Which of the following statements is TRUE for angiotensin-II?
(A) Causes myocyte hypertrophy
(B) Decreases the action of sympathetic nervous system
(C) Increases force of myocardial contraction
(D) Decreases the synthesis and release of aldosterone
Ans: A


Q.91 All of the given four drugs cause vasodilatation. Choose the correct statement
about them.
[P] Bradykinin [Q] Minoxidil [R] Acetylcholine [S] Hydralazine
(A) P & Q cause release of nitric oxide
(B) Q & R do not cause release of nitric oxide
(C) R & S cause release of nitric oxide
(D) P & S do not cause release of nitric oxide
Ans: A


Q.92 Blood level monitoring of HbAlc is important in which of the given diseased
states?
(A) Hypercholesterolemia (B) Diabetes mellitus
(C) Myocardial infarction (D) Congestive heart failure
Ans: B


Q.93 Which of the fallowings is the most effective monotherapy for raising HDL
cholesterol?
(A) Statins (B) Niacin (C) Ezetimibe (D) w-3-Fatty acids
Ans: B


Q.94 Which of the following pairs has high binding affinity for Sa-reductase?
(A) Letrozole and androstenedione (B) Finasteride and testolactone
(C) Finasteride and 5-DHT (D) Finasteride and testosterone
Ans: C


Q.95 Which is the molecular target for the vinca alkaloids as anticancer agents?
(A) Tyrosine kinase (B) DNA (C) Ribosomes (D) Tubulin
Ans: D


Q.96 A 64 year old woman with a history of Type II diabetes is diagnosed with heart
failure. Which of the followings would be a POOR choice in controlling her
diabetes?
(A) Metformin (B) Pioglitazone (C) Glipizide (D) Exenatide
Ans: B


Q.97 Which of the following parameters from plasma concentration time profile study
gives indication of the rate of drug absorption?
(A) Cmax (B) Tmax (C) AUC (D) tl/2
Answer: B


Q.98 Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants acts directly on the
contractile mechanism of the muscle fibers?
(A) Pancuronium (B) Baclofen (C) Dantrolene (D) Chlorzoxazone
Ans: C


Q.99 Choose the correct pair of the neurodegenerative disorders from those given
below.
(A) Parkinson's disease and Alzheimer's disease
(B) Schizophrenia and Mania
(C) Alzheimer's disease and Schizophrenia
(D) Parkinson's disease and Autism
Ans: A


Q.100 Mifepristone and gemeprost combination is used for medical termination of
pregnancy. The action is caused due to which of the following mechanisms?
(A) Mifepristone is an antiestrogen while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E
receptor agonist.
(B) Mifepristone is an antiprogestin while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E
receptor agonist.
(C) Mifepristone is an antiandrogen while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E
receptor agonist.
(D) Mifepristone is an antiprogestin while gemeprost is a prostaglandin E
receptor antagonist.
Ans: B


Q.101 Upon standing sometimes gel system shrinks a bit and little liquid is pressed out. What is this phenomenon known as? -
(A) Oozing (B) Syneresis (C) Shrinking (D) Desolvation
Ans: B


Q.102 Study the following two statements and choose the correct answer: [P] Antibodies are serum proteins providing immunity.
[Q] IgG provides immunity to new born babies while IgM is the first generated antibody.
(A) P is correct and Q is incorrect (B) P is incorrect and Q is correct
(C) Both P and Q are correct (D) Both P and Q are incorrect
Ans: C


Q.103 Non-linear pharmacokinetics can be expected due to
[P] Enzyme induction [Q] Active secretion
Choose the correct answer.
(A) Both P and Q are true (B) P is true, Q is false
(C) Q is true, P is false (D) Both P and Q are false
Ans: A


Q.104 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?
(A) Chick Martin test uses organic matter in media
(B) The organism in Rideal-Walker test is S. typhi
(C) Rideal-Walker test uses organic matter in media
(B) The organism in Chick Martin test is S. typhi
Ans: C


Q.105 Which of the following routes of administration of drugs is associated with Phlebitis?
(A) Subcuteneous (B) Intravenous (C) Intraspinal (D) Intradural
Ans: B
Q.106 Which microbe is used for validation of sterilization by filtration process?
(A) Bacillus stearothermophilus (B) Pseudomonas diminuta
(C) Bacillus subtilis (D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Ans: A


Q.107 Which wavelength of the UV light provides maximum germicidal action?
(A) 253.7 nm (B) 275.5 nm (C) 283.5 nm (D) 240.0 nm
Ans: A


Q.108 Which of the following forces contribute to stability of charge-transfer complexes?
(A) Resonance forces
(B) Resonance and London dispersion forces
(C) Dipole-dipole interactions and London dispersion forces
(D) Resonance forces and dipole-dipole interactions
Ans: D


Q.109 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the fallowing statements:
[P] Rheopexy is the phenomenon when a sol farms gel more readily when sheared gently. [Q] In a rheopectic system, sol is the equilibrium form.
[R] Rheopexy is a phenomenon when a sol forms gel when the material is kept at rest.
(AT [R] is true but [P] and [Q] are false (B) [P] is true but [Q] and [R] are false (C) [P], [Q] and [R], all are false (D) [P], [Q] and [R], all are true
Ans: B


Q.110 Molecules in the smectic liquid crystals are characterized by which one of the followings?
(A) Mobility in three directions and rotation in one axis
(B) Mobility in two directions and rotation in one axis
(C) Mobility in two directions and no rotation
(D) Mobility in three directions and no rotation
Ans: B


Q.111 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]:
Assertion [a] : For a pharmaceutical powder true density is greater than the granule density.
Reason [r] : Mercury displacement used for determining granule density, allows penetration of liquid into internal pores of the particles.
(A) [a] is true but [r] is false
(B) Both [a] and [r] are false
(C) Both [a] and [r] are true and [r] is the correct reason for [a]
(D) Both [a] and [r] are true but [r] is NOT the correct reason for [a]
Ans: A


Q.112 Define Plasmapheresis? Choose the correct answer.
(A) The process of collecting plasma and returning the red blood cells concentrate to the donor
(B) The process of collecting red blood cells concentrate and returning the plasma to the donor
(C) The process of separating white blood cells from blood
(D) The process of generating artificial blood plasma expanders
Ans: A


Q.113 Choose the correct sequence of Moisture Vapor Transmission Rate in packaging materials?
(A) Paper > Aluminium foil > PVC > PVdC
(B) Aluminium foil > PVC > PVdC > Paper
(C) Aluminium foil > PVdC > PVC > Paper
(D) Paper > PVC > PVdC > Aluminium foil
Ans: C


Q.114 What will be the dose required to maintain therapeutic concentration of 20 microgram/ml for 24 hr of a drug exhibiting total clearance of 2 L/hr?
(A) 96 mg (B) 480 mg (C) 960 mg (D) 48 mg
Ans: C


Q.115 The Reynolds number widely used to classify flow behavior of fluids is the ratio of which one of the followings?
(A) Inertial forces to gravitational forces (B) Inertial forces' to viscous forces
(C) Viscous forces to inertial forces (D) Viscous forces to gravitational forces
Ans: B


Q.116 What for the baffles are provided in a shell and tube heat exchanger?
(A) To increase turbulence CB) To decrease turbulence
(C) To prevent corrosion (D) To increase shell side passes
Ans: A


Q.117 Which statement is FALSE for Association Colloids?
(A) They are also called amphiphiles (B) They contain aggregated molecules
(C) They show partial solvation (D) They are also called micelles
Ans: C


Q.118 What will be the time required for a drug exhibiting first order rate constant of 4.6/hr to be degraded from initial concentration of 100 mg/ml to 10 mg/ml?
(A) 2hr (B) 4hr (C) 9 hr (D) 0.5 hr
Ans: D


Q.119 What will be the urine to plasma ratio of a weakly acidic drug having pKa of 5? [urine (pH = 5) plasma (pH = 7)]
(A) 1 : 101 (B) 1 : 201 (C) 2 : 101 (D) 1 : 202
Ans: B


Q.120 If the distillation graph using McCabe Thiele method is parallel to X-axis, then the feed is which one of the followings?
(A) Saturated liquid (B) Saturated vapor (C) Superheated liquid (D) Superheated vapor
Ans: A


Q.121 S.O.S means which one of the followings?
(A) Take occasionally (B) Take immediately (C) Take when necessary (D) Take as directed
Ans: C


Q.122 Which of the followings is NOT a reciprocating pump?
(A) Plunger pump (B) Diaphragm pump (C) Gear pump (D) Piston pump
Ans: C


Q.123 Hydrogen peroxide solution (20 volumes) is used topically as a mild antiseptic. It is mainly used for cleaning of wounds which csold be due to some of the following actions of hydrogen peroxide.
[P] Astringent action [Q] Nascent hydrogen releasing action
[R] Oxidizing action [S] Mechanical cleansing action
Choose the correct statements- for the use of hydrogen peroxide as cleaning agent for wounds?
(A) P&R (B) P&Q (C) R&Q (D) R & S
Ans: A


Q.124 Boric acid is a weak acid (pKa 9.19) which cannot be titrated with a standard solution of sodium hydroxide using phenolphthalein as indicator. This titration becomes possible on addition of glycerol due to one of the following reactions. Choose the correct reaction?
(A)Boric acid becomes boronic acid on reaction with glycerol
(B) Boric acid gives a monoprotic tetravalent boron ester with glycerol
(C) Boric acid gives a tribasic acid on reaction with glycerol


(D)Two boric acid molecules combine to give an anhydride in presence of glycerol
Ans: B


Q.125 A tooth paste contains stannous fluoride and calcium pyrophosphate along with other formulation constituents. Choose the correct statement out of the followings?
(A) Stannous fluoride is an anticaries agent while calcium pyrophosphate is a dentifrice
(B) Stannous fluoride is a dentifrice while calcium pyrophosphate is a desensitizing agent
(C) Stannous fluoride is a desensitizing agent while calcium pyrophosphate is an anticaries agent
(D) Both are dentifrices while calcium pyrophosphate is additionally a desensitizing agent
Ans: A


Q.126 Magnesium trisilicate is considered to be a better antacid than aluminium hydroxide due to its following additional properties:
[P] It has a fixed chemical composition
[Q] It forms colloidal silicone dioxide
[R] Magnesium ions overcome constipation
[S] Magnesium ions cause higher inhibition of pepsin than aluminium ions Choose the correct combination of statements?
(A) Q&S (B) R&S (C) P&Q (D) Q&R
Ans: D


Q.127 An iron compound used as heamatinic agent must meet two requirements i.e. it should be biologically available and be non-irritating. Which one of the following compounds meet the above two requirements most closely?
(A) Ferric chloride (B) Ferric ammonium sulphate
(C) Ferric ammonium citrate (D) Ferrous thioglycollate
Ans: B


Q.128 Diels-Alder reaction can be earned out in which of the following heterocyclic compounds most readily?
(A) Pyrrole (B) Thiophene (C) Furan (D) Pyridine
Ans: C


Q.129 Determine the correctness or otherwise of the following Assertion [a] and the Reason [r]:
Assertion (a) : Quaternary ammonium phase transfer catalysts can enhance the rate of nucleophilic aliphatic substitution reactions in biphasic systems with water soluble nucleophiles.
Reason (r) : Quaternary ammonium compounds are highly polar, positively charged water soluble compounds.
(A) Both (a) and (r) are true but (r) is not the correct reason for (a)
(B) Both (a) and (r) are true and (r) is the correct reason for (a)
(C) (a) is true (r) is false
(D) Both (a) and (r) are false
Ans: B


Q.130 Pyridine is more basic than pyrrole. This is due to which of the following facts?
(A) Lone pair of electrons on N in pyrrole is localized
(B) Lone pair of electrons on N in pyridine is localized
(C) Nitrogen of pyrrole has one hydrogen atom attached to it while pyridine does not have any
(D) Pyridine has three double bonds while pyrrole has only two
Ans: B


Q.131 In nucleophilic aliphatic substitution reactions arrange the following leaving groups in decreasing order of their leaving capacity?
[P] Brosyl [Q] Hydroxyl [R] Chloro [S] Mesyl
(A)S>R>P>Q (B)P>S>R>Q
(C) R>Q>S>P (D) R > S > Q > P
Ans: B


Q.132 Which one of the given compounds can be used as primary standard for standardization of perchloric acid solution in non-aqueous titrations?
(A) Potassium hydrogen phthalate (B) Sodium bicarbonate
(C) Potassium dihydrogen phosphate (D) Sodium methoxide
Ans: A


Q.133 Following are the desirable properties of the liquid phase used in GLC EXCEPT for one of the followings. Identify that.
(A) It should be inert to the analyse;
(B) It should have high viscosity at operating temperature
(C) It should have low vapour pressure at the operating temperature
(D) It should have a high resolving power
Ans: B


Q.134 To synthesize sulphonylurea antidiabetics, which of the following reactions can be used?
(A) Reacting a suitably substituted sulphonyl chloride with a desired urea derivative under basic conditions
(B) Reacting a suitably substituted sulphonamide with a desired isocyanate derivative
(C) Reacting a suitably substituted sulphonic acid with a desired isocyanate derivative
(D) Reacting a suitably substituted sulphoxide with a desired urea derivative
Ans: B


Q.135 In polarography, DME has a number of advantages. One of the advantages is that mercury has large hydrogen overpotential. It means which one of the followings?
(A) Hydrogen ions get easily reduced on the DIME
(B) Hydrogen gas gets easily reduced on the DME
(C) Hydrogen ions require high potential to be reduced at DME
(D) Water is difficult to get oxidized at DME
Ans: A
Q.136 In HPLC analysis what type of column would you prefer?
(A) A column with high HETP and high number of plates
(B) A column with low HETP and low number of plates
(C) A column with high HETP and low number of plates
(D) A column with low HETP and high number of plates
Ans: D


Q.137 In an optically active organic compound a chiral carbon has the following attached groups:
[P] -CO—CH3
[Q] -C—OH
[R] -CH = CH2
[S] -C=CH
Using 'Sequence Rules' choose the correct order of priority of the groups?
(A) Q > P > S > R
(B) P > Q > R > S
(C) Q > P > R > S
(D) P > Q > S > R
Ans: A


Q.138 Which one is an example of a bulk property detector used in HPLC?
(A) Fluorescence detector (B) Photo diode array detector (C) Refractive index detector (D) UV detector
Ans: C


Q.139 A 250 jig/ml solution of a drug gave an absorbance of 0.500 at 250 nm at a path length of 10 mm. What is the specific absorbance of the drug at 250 nm?
(A) 0.002 cm-1gm-1litre (B) 0.002 cm-1gm-1 dl
(C) 20 cm-1gm-1 litre (D) 20 cm1gm-1dl
Ans: D


Q.140 Following statements are given for a chemical reaction:
Change in Gibb's free energy of the reaction has a negative value. Change in Enthalpy of the reaction has a negative value Change in Entropy of the reaction has a positive value Based on the above statements choose the correct answer.
(A) The reaction is spontaneous.
(B) The reaction is non-spontaneous.
(C) The reaction could either be spontaneous or non-spontaneous.
(D) The reaction can never be spontaneous.
Ans: A


Q. 141 Which of the following statements is WRONG?
(A) The energy required for removing an electron from a molecule varies in the given order : lone pair < conjugated n < non conjugated n < a
(B) Isotopic ratio is particularly useful for the detection and estimation of number of S, CI and Br atoms in the compound in MS
(C) Neutral fragments and molecules do not get detected in the detector in MS
(D) The most intense peak in the MS is called the molecular ion peak
Ans: D


Q.142 The protons ortho to the nitro group in p-nitrotoluene are examples of which one of the following types?
(A) Chemically equivalent but magnetically non-equivalent protons
(B) Chemically and magnetically equivalent protons
(C) Chemically and magnetically nonequivalent protons
(D) Chemically nonequivalent but magnetically equivalent protons
Ans: A


Q.143 The peak at m/z 91 in the mass spectrum for alkylbenzenes is due to which one of the followings?
(A) Alpha fission (B) Mc-Laffartey rearrangement
(C) Retro Diels-Alder rearrangement (D) Tropylium ion formation
Ans: D


Q.144 Which one of the followings is NOT bioisostearic pair
(A) Divalent ether (-0-) and amine (–N-H)
(B) Hydroxyl (-OH) and thiol (-SH)
(C) Carboxylate (C02-) and sulfone (SO2)
(D) Hydrogen (-H) and fluorine (-F)
Ans: A


Q.145 The catalytic triad in acetylcholineesfcera«e is composed of which of the following amino acid residues?
(A) Serine, Histidine and Glutamate (B) Serine, Arginine and Glutamate
(C) Threonine, Histidine and Aspartate (D) Threonine, Arginine and Glutamate
Ans: A


Q.146 Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Aliphatic protons have chemical shifts > 7 ppm
(B) Spin quantum number of proton is 1
(C) Chemical shift describes electronic environment of a proton
(D) Vicinal coupling constant is always higher than geminal coupling constant
Ans: C


Q.147 Beta-Carboline ring system is present in
(A) Emetine (B) Riboflavine (C) Deserpidine (D) d-Tubocurarine
Ans: C


Q.148 Of the four stereoisomers of chloramphenicol which one is the biologically active isomer?
(A) L-Erythro (B) L-Threo (C) D-Erythro (D) D-Threo
Ans: D


Q.149 Fajan's method of titrimetric analysis involves detection of the end point on the basis of which one the followings?
(A) Colour change (B) Appearance of a precipitate (C) Neutralization reaction (D) Adsorption phenomenon
Ans: A


Q.150 In FT-IR instruments Michaelson interferometer is used in place of grating. The function of the interferometer is to act as a modulator'. What do you understand by this statement?
(A) The function of the interferometer is to act as a monochromator
(B) The function of the interferometer is to convert high frequency radiations into low ones
(C) The function of the interferometer is to convert low frequency radiations into high ones
(D) The function of the interferometer is to convert frequency domain spectra into time domain spectra
Ans: A