Thursday, October 27, 2011

UPSC Civil Services Prelims General Studies Solved Paper

UPSC CIVIL Services Preliminary Examination Solved Question paper

UPSC Civil Services Prelims General Studies Solved Paper

(1)    Biodiversity forms the basis for human existence in the following ways :
    1. Soil formation
    2. Prevention of soil erosion
    3. Recycling of waste
    4. Pollination of crops
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
    (c) 1 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. d

(2)    Aspartame is an artificial sweetener sold in the market. It consists of amino acids and provides calories like other amino acids. Yet, it is used as a low-calorie sweetening agent in food items. What is the basis of this use?
    (a) Aspartame is as sweet as table sugar, but unlike table sugar, it is not readily oxidized in human body due to lack of requisite enzymes
    (b) When aspartame is used in food processing, the sweet taste remains, but it becomes resistant to oxidation
    (c) Aspartame is as sweet as sugar, but after ingestion into the body, it is converted into metabolites that yield no calories
    (d) Aspartame is several times sweeter than table sugar, hence food items made with small quantities of aspartame yield fewer calories on oxidation
Ans. d

(3)    What was the purpose with which Sir William Wedderburn and W. S. Caine had set up the Indian    Parliamentary Committee in 1893?
    (a) To agitate for Indian political reforms in the House of Commons
    (b) To campaign for. the entry of Indians into the Imperial Judiciary
    (c) To facilitate a discussion on India’s Independence in the British Parliament
    (d) To agitate for the entry of eminent Indians into the British Parliament
Ans. a
(4)    What is the difference between a CFL and an LED lamp?
    1. To produce light, a CFL uses mercury vapour and phosphor while an LED lamp uses semiconductor    material.
    2. The average life span of a CFL is much longer than that of an LED lamp.
    3. A CFL is less energy-efficient as compared to an LED lamp.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. c
(5)     Recently, “oilzapper” was in the news. What is it?
    (a) It is an eco-friendly technology for the remediation of oily sludge and oil spills
    (b) It is the latest technology developed for under-sea oil exploration
    (c) It is a genetically engineered high biofuel-yielding maize variety
    (d) It is the latest technology to control the accidentally caused flames from oil wells
Ans. a
(6)     A married couple adopted a male child, A few years later; twin boys were born to them. The blood group of the couple is AB positive and O negative. The blood group of the three sons is A positive, B positive, and O positive. The blood group of the adopted son is
    (a) O positive
    (b) A positive
    (c) B positive
    (d) Cannot be determined on the basis of the given data
Ans. a
(7)    Mahatma Gandhi said that some of his deepest convictions were reflected in a book titled, “Unto this Last” and the book transformed his life. What was the message from the book that transformed Mahatma Gandhi?
    (a) Uplifting the oppressed and poor is the moral responsibility of an educated man
    (b) The good of individual is contained in the good of all
    (c) The life of celibacy and spiritual pursuit are essential for a noble life
    (d) All the statements (a), (b) and (c) are correct in this context
Ans. b
(8)    With reference to Indian freedom struggle, Usha Mehta is well-known for
    (a) Running the secret Congress Radio in the wake of Quit India Movement
    (b) Participating in the Second Round Table Conference
    (c) Leading a contingent of Indian National Army
    (d) Assisting in the formation of Interim Government under Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
Ans. a
(9)     A new optical disc format known as the Blu-ray Disc (BD) is becoming popular. In what way is it different from the traditional DVD?
    1. DVD supports Standard Definition video while BD supports High Definition video.
    2. Compared to a DVD, the BD format has several times more storage capacity.
    3. Thickness of BD is 2.4 mm white that of DVD is 1.2 mm.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
(10)    With reference to the period of Indian freedom struggle, which of the following was/were recommended by the Nehru report?
    1. Complete Independence for India.
    2. Joint electorates for reservation of seats for minorities.
    3. Provision of fundamental rights for the people of India in the Constitution.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
(11) Among the following States, which one has the most suitable climatic conditions for the cultivation of a large variety of orchids with minimum cost of production, and can develop an export oriented industry in this field?
    (a) Andhra Pradesh
    (b) Arunachal Pradesh
    (c) Madhya Pradesh
    (d) Uttar Pradesh
Ans. b
(12) Which one of the following is not a site for in-situ method of conservation of flora?
    (a) Biosphere Reserve
    (b) Botanical Garden
    (c) National Park
    (d) Wildlife Sanctuary
Ans. b
(13) Consider the following statements :
    In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee
    1. is constituted under the provisions of the Constitution of India.
    2. prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area.
    3. has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in die metropolitan area.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. a
(14) What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and “interim budget”?
    1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a regular Government, while an “interim budget” is a provision used by a caretaker Government.
    2. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the expenditure in Government’s budget, while an “interim budget” includes both expenditure and receipts.
    Which of the statements; given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
(15)     Regarding international Monetary Fund, which one of the following statements is correct?
    (a) It can grant loans to any country
    (b) It can grant loans to only developed countries
    (c) It grants loans to only member countries
    (d) It can grant loans to the central bank of a country
Ans. c
(16)    In the Union Budget 2011-12, a full exemption from the basic customs duty was extended to the bio-based asphalt (bioasphalt). What is the importance of this material?
    1. Unlike traditional asphalt, bio-asphalt is not based on fossil fuels.
    2. Bioasphalt can be made from non-renewable resources.
    3. Bioasphalt can be made from organic waste materials.
    4. It is eco-friendly to use bioasphalt for surfacing of the roads.
    Which of the statements given above are correct?
    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
    (c) 2 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. b
(17)     Consider the following:
    1. Carbon dioxide
    2. Oxides of Nitrogen
    3. Oxides of Sulphur
    Which of the above is/are the emission/ emissions from coal combustion at thermal power plants?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(18)    Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in such an orbit when:
    1. The orbit is geosynchronous.
    2. The orbit is circular,
    3. The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth’s equator.
    4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22,236 km.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
    (c) 2 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2,3 and 4
Ans. a
(19)    India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the
    reasons?
    1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30%.
    2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the% people have undergone a significant change.
    3. The food supply chain has structural constraints.
    Which of the statements given above1 are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
(20)    At present, scientists can determine the arrangement or relative positions of genes or DNA sequences on a chromosome. How does this knowledge benefit us?
    1. It is possible to know the pedigree of livestock.
    2. It is possible to understand the causes of all human diseases.
    3. It is possible to develop disease-resistant animal breeds.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(21)    In terms of economy, the visit by foreign nationals to witness the XIX Common Wealth Games in India amounted to
    (a) Export
    (b) Import
    (c) Production
    (d) Consumption
Ans. a
(22) Microbial fuel cells are considered a source of sustainable energy. Why?
    1. They use living organisms as catalysts to generate electricity from certain substrates.
    2. They use a variety of inorganic materials as substrates.
    3. They can be installed in waste water, treatment plants to cleanse water and produce electricity.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(23) Which one of the following statements appropriately describes the “fiscal, stimulus”?
    (a) It is a massive investment by the Government in manufacturing sector to ensure the supply of goods to meet the demand surge caused by rapid economic growth
    (b) It is an intense affirmative action of the Government to boost economic activity in the country
    (c) It is Government’s intensive action on financial institutions to ensure disbursement of loans to agriculture and allied sectors to promote greater food production and contain food inflation
    (d) It is an extreme affirmative action by the Government to pursue its policy of financial inclusion
Ans. b
(24)    The formation of ozone hole in the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What could be the reason for the formation of this hole?
    (a) Presence of prominent tropo-spheric turbulence; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
    (b) Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric’ clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons
    (c) Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of methane and chlorofluorocarbons
    (d) Increased temperature at polar region due to global warming
Ans. b
(25) Consider the following actions which the Government can take:
    1. Devaluing the domestic currency.
    2. Reduction in the export subsidy.
    3. Adopting suitable policies which attract greater FDI and more funds from FIIs.
    Which of the above action/actions can help in reducing the current account deficit?
    (a) 1 and 2
    (b) 2 and 3
    (c) 3 only
    (d) 1 and 3
Ans. a
(26)    The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following?
    1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
    2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections.
    3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(27)    Two important rivers — one with its source in Jharkhand (and known by a different name in Odisha), and another, with its source in Odisha — merge at a place only a short distance from the coast of Bay of Bengal before flowing into the sea. This is an important site of wildlife and biodiversity and a protected area. Which one of the following could be this?
    (a) Bhitarkanika
    (b) Chandipur-on-sea
    (c) Gopalpur-on-sea
    (d) Simlipal
Ans. a
(28)    A rapid increase in the rate of inflation is sometimes attributed to the “base effect”. What is “base effect”?
    (a) It is the impact of drastic deficiency in supply due to failure of crops
    (b) It is the impact of the surge in demand due to rapid economic growth
    (c) It is the impact of the price levels of previous year on the calculation of inflation rate
    (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) ‘given above is correct in this context
Ans. c
(29)    India is regarded as a country with “Demographic Dividend”. This is due to
    (a) Its high population in the age group below 15 years
    (b) Its high population in the age group of 15-64 years
    (c) Its high population in the age group above 65 years
    (d) Its high total population
Ans. b
(30)    Regarding “carbon, credits”, which one of the following statements is not correct?
    (a) The carbon credit system was ratified in conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol
    (b) Carbon credits are awarded to countries or groups that have reduced greenhouse gases below their emission quota
    (c) The goal of the carbon credit system is to limit the increase of carbon dioxide emission
    (d) Carbon credits are- traded at a price fixed from time to time by the United Nations Environment Programme
Ans. b
(31)    Consider the following :
    1. Right to education.
    2. Right to equal access to public service.
    3. Right to food.
    Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under “Universal Declaration of Human Rights”?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. ?
(32)    There is a concern: over the increase in harmful algal blooms in the seawaters of India. What could be the causative factors for this phenomenon?
    1. Discharge of nutrients from the estuaries.
    2. Run-off from the land during the monsoon.
    3. Upwelling in the seas.
    Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(33)    Consider the following :
    1. Photosynthesis
    2. Respiration
    3. Decay of organic matter
    4. Volcanic action
    Which of the above add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on Earth?
    (a) 1 and 4 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. c
(34)    Recently, the USA decided to support India’s membership in multi-lateral export control regimes called the “Australia Group” and the “Wassenaar Arrangement”. What is the difference between them?
    1. The Australia Group is an informal arrangement which aims to allow exporting countries to minimize the risk of assisting chemical and biological weapons proliferation, whereas the Wassenaar- Arrangement is a formal group under the OECD holding identical objectives.
    2. The Australia Group comprises predominantly of Asian, African and North American countries, whereas the member countries of Wassenaar Arrangement are predominantly from the European Union and American continents.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. b
(35)    The surface of a lake is frozen in severe winter, but the water at its bottom is still liquid. What is the reason?
    (a) Ice is a bad conductor of heat
    (b) Since the surface of the lake is at the same temperature as the air, no heat is lost
    (c) The density of water is maximum at 4°C
    (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct
Ans. a
(36)    A sandy and saline area is the natural habitat of an Indian animal species. The animal has no predators in that area but its existence is threatened due to the destruction of its habitat. Which one of the following could be that animal?
    (a) Indian wild buffalo
    (b) Indian wild ass
    (c) Indian wild boar
    (d) Indian gazelle
Ans. b
(37)    La Nina is suspected to have caused recent floods in Australia. How is La Nina different from El Nino?
    1.  La Nina is characterised by unusually cold ocean temperature in equatorial Indian Ocean whereas El Nino is characterised by unusually warm ocean temperature in the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
    2. El Nino has adverse effect on south-west monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect on monsoon climate.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. a
(38)    The tendency for increased litigation was visible after the introduction of the land settlement system of Lord Cornwallis in 1793. The reason for this is normally traced to which of the following provisions?
    (a) Making Zamindar’s position stronger vis-a-vis the ryot
    (b) Making East India Company an overlord of Zamindars
    (c) Making judicial system more efficient
    (d) None of the (a), (b) and (c) above
Ans. ?
(39)    Which one of the following observations is not true about the Quit India Movement of 1942?
    (a) It was a non-violent movement
    (b) It was led by Mahatma Gandhi
    (c) It was a spontaneous movement
    (d) It did not attract the labour class in general
Ans. b
(40)    Which amongst the following provided a common factor for tribal insurrection in India in the 19th century?
    (a) Introduction of a new system of land revenue and taxation- of tribal products
    (b) Influence of foreign religious missionaries in tribal areas
    (c) Rise of a large number of money lenders, traders and revenue farmers as middlemen in tribal areas
    (d) The complete disruption of the old agrarian order of the tribal communities
Ans. d
(41)     India maintained its early cultural contacts and trade links with Southeast Asia across the Bay of Bengal. For this pre-eminence of early maritime history of Bay of Bengal, which of the following could be the most convincing .explanation/explanations?
    (a) As compared to other countries, India had a better ship-building technology in ancient and medieval times
    (b) The rulers of southern India always patronized traders, brahmin priests and buddhist monks in this context
    (c) Monsoon winds across the Bay of Bengal facilitated sea voyages
    (d) Both (a) and (b) are convincing explanations in this context
Ans. b
(42)     What is the difference between Bluetooth and Wi-Fi devices?
    (a) Bluetooth uses 2.4 GHz radio frequency band, whereas-Wi-Fi can use 2.4 GHz or 5 GHz frequency band
    (b) Bluetooth is used for Wireless Local Area Networks (WLAN) only, whereas Wi-Fi is used for Wireless Wide Area Networks (WWAN) only
    (c) When information is transmitted between two devices using Blue-tooth technology, the devices have to be in the line of sight of each other, but when Wi-Fi technology is used the devices need not be in the line of sight of each other
    (d) The statements (a) and (b) given above are correct in this context
Ans. c
(43)    With reference to micro-irrigation, which of the following statements is/are correct?
    1. Fertilizer/nutrient loss can be reduced.
    2. It is the only means of irrigation in dry land farming.
    3. In some areas of farming, receding of ground water table can be checked.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. c
(44)     With reference to the period of colonial rule in India, “Home Charges” formed an important part of     drain of wealth from India. Which of the following funds constituted “Home Charges”?
    1. Funds used to support the India Office in London.
    2. Funds used to pay salaries and pensions of British personnel engaged in India.
    3. Funds used for waging wars outside India by the British.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(45)     What was the reason for Mahatma Gandhi to organize a satyagraha on behalf of the peasants of
    Kheda?
    1. The Administration did not suspend the land revenue collection in spite of a drought.
    2. The Administration proposed to introduce Permanent Settlement in Gujarat.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. a
(46)     The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge against coastal calamities. How do mangroves function as a safety hedge?
    (a) The mangrove swamps separate the human settlements from the sea by a wide zone in which people neither live nor venture out
    (b) The mangroves provide both food and medicines which people are in need of after any natural disaster
    (c) The mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies and serve as art excellent shelter during a cyclone or tsunami
    (d) The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms and tides because of their extensive roots
Ans. d
(47)     The Jain philosophy holds that the world is created and maintained by
    (a) Universal Law
    (b) Universal Truth
    (c) Universal Faith
    (d) Universal Soul
Ans. a
(48)     Salinization occurs when the irrigation water accumulated in the soil evaporates, leaving behind salts and minerals. What are the effects of salinization on the irrigated land?
    (a) It greatly increases the crop production
    (b) It makes some soils impermeable
    (c) It raises the water table
    (d) It fills the air spaces in the soil with water
Ans. b
(49) The “Red Data Books” published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) contain lists of
    1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots,
    2. Threatened plant and animal species.
    3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1 and 3
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 2 and 3
    (d) 3 only
Ans. b

UPSC CIVIL Services Prelims General Studies Solved Question Paper-I

PAPER-I

(50)     Why is the offering of “teaser loans” by commercial banks a cause of economic concern?
    1. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of sub-prime lending and banks may be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future.
    2. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or export units.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
(51)     An artificial satellite orbiting around the Earth does not fall down. This is so because the attraction Of Earth
    (a) does not exist at such distance
    (b) is neutralized by the attraction of the moon
    (c) provides the necessary speed for its steady motion
    (d) provides the necessary acceleration for its motion
Ans. c
(52)    In the context of Indian economy, consider the following statements :
    1. The growth rate of GDP has steadily increased in the last five years.
    2. The growth rate in per capita income has steadily increased in the last five years.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. b
(53) In India, which of the following have the highest share in the disbursement of credit to agriculture and allied activities?
    (a) Commercial Banks
    (b) Cooperative Banks
    (c) Regional Rural Banks
    (d) Microfinance Institutions
Ans. a
(54) Which of the following can aid in furthering the Government’s objective of inclusive growth?
    1. Promoting Self-Help Groups
    2. Promoting Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises
    3. Implementing the Right to Education Act
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(55)     Why is die Government of India disinvesting its equity in the Central Public Sector Enterprises (CPSEs) ?
    1. The Government intends to use the revenue earned-from the disinvestment mainly to pay back the external debt.
    2. The Government no longer intends to retain the management control of the CPSEs.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) I only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. d
(56)    What is die difference between asteroids and comets?
    1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while comets are formed of frozen gases held together by rocky and metallic material.
    2. Asteroids are found mostly between the orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are found mostly between Venus and Mercury.
    3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, while asteroids do not.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2 only
    (b) 1 and 3 only
    (c) 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(57)     Economic growth is usually coupled with
    (a) Deflation
    (b) Inflation
    (c) Stagflation
    (d) Hyperinflation
Ans. b
(58) The lowering of Bank Rate by the Reserve Bank of India leads to
    (a) More liquidity in the market
    (b) Less liquidity in the market
    (c) No change in the liquidity in the market
    (d) Mobilization of more deposits by commercial banks
Ans. a
(59) Westerlies in southern hemisphere are stronger and persistent than in northern hemisphere. Why?
    1. Southern hemisphere has less landmass as compared to northern hemisphere.
    2. Coriolis force is higher in southern hemisphere as compared to northern hemisphere
    Which of-the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. a
(60)     Between India and East Asia, the navigation-time and distance can be greatly reduced by which of
    the following?
    1. Deepening the Malacca straits between Malaysia and Indonesia.
    2. Opening a new canal across the Kra isthmus between the Gulf of Siam and Andaman Sea.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
(61) Which one of the following is not a feature of “Value Added Tax”?
    (a) It is a multi-point destination-based system of taxation
    (b) It is a tax levied on value addition at each stage of transaction in the production-distribution chain
    (c) It is a tax on the final consumption of goods or services and must ultimately be borne by the consumer
    (d) It is basically a subject of the Central Government and the State Governments are only a facilitator for its successful implementation
Ans. c
(62)     A “closed economy” is an economy in which
    (a) the money supply is fully controlled
    (b) deficit financing takes place
    (c) only exports take place
    (d) neither exports nor imports take place
Ans. d
(63) When the bark of a tree is removed in a circular fashion all around near its base, it gradually dries up and dies because
    (a) Water from soil cannot rise to aerial parts
    (b) Roots are starved of energy
    (c) Tree is infected by soil microbes
    (d) Roots do not receive oxygen for respiration
Ans. a
(64)     The “New START” treaty was in the news. What is this treaty?
    (a) It is a bilateral strategic nuclear arms reduction treaty between the USA and the Russian Federation
    (b) It is a multilateral energy security cooperation treaty among the members of the East Asia Summit
    (c) It is a treaty between the Russian Federation and the European Union for the energy security    cooperation
    (d) It is a multilateral cooperation treaty among the BRICS countries for the promotion of trade
Ans. a
(65)     Three of the following criteria have contributed to the recognition of Western Ghats-Sri Lanka and Indo-Burma regions as hotspots of biodiversity:
    1. Species richness
    2. Vegetation density
    3. Endemism
    4. Ethno-botanical importance
    5. Threat perception
    6. Adaptation of flora and fauna to warm and humid conditions
    Which three of the above are correct criteria in this context?
    (a) 1, 2 and 6
    (b) 2, 4 and 6
    (c) 1, 3 and 5
    (d) 3, 4 and 6
Ans. c
(66)     Human activities in the recent past have Caused the increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, but a lot of it does not remain in the lower atmosphere because of
    1. its escape into the outer stratosphere.
    2. the photosynthesis by phyto-plankton in the oceans.
    3. the trapping of air in the polar ice caps.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 2 and 3
    (d) 3 only
Ans. ?
(67)     In the context of ecosystem productivity, marine upwelling zones are important as they increase the marine productivity by bringing the
    1. decomposer microorganisms to the surface.
    2. nutrients to the surface.
    3. bottom-dwelling organisms to- the surface.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 and 2
    (b) 2 only
    (c) 2 and 3
    (d) 3 only
Ans. ?
(68)     If a tropical rain forest is removed, it does not regenerate quickly as compared to a tropical deciduous forest. This is because
    (a) the soil of rain forest is deficient in nutrients
    (b) propagules of the trees in a rain forest have poor viability
    (c) the rain forest species are slow-growing
    (d) exotic species invade the fertile soil of rain forest
Ans. ?
(69)     The Himalayan Range is Very rich in species diversity. Which one among the following is the most
    appropriate reason for this phenomenon?
    (a) It has a high rainfall that supports luxuriant vegetative growth
    (b) It is a confluence of different bio-geographical zones
    (c) Exotic and invasive species have not been introduced in this region
    (d) It has less human interference
Ans. ?
(70)     With reference to India, consider the following Central Acts:
    1. Import and Export (Control) Act, 1947
    2. Mining and Mineral Development (Regulation) Act, 1957
    3. Customs Act, 1962
    4. Indian Forest Act, 1927
    Which of the above Acts have relevance to/bearing on the biodiversity conservation in the country?
    (a) 1 and 3 only
    (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
    (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    (d) None of the above Acts
Ans. c
(71)     Karl Marx explained the process of class struggle with the help of which one of the following theories?
    (a) Empirical liberalism
    (b) Existentialism
    (c) Darwin’s theory of evolution
    (d) Dialectical materialism
Ans. d
(72) A layer in the Earth’s atmosphere called Ionosphere facilitates radio communication. Why?
    1. The presence of ozone causes the reflection of radio waves to Earth.
    2. Radio waves have a very long wavelength.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. b
(73)     Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a country. Which one of the following statements best represents an important difference between the two?
    (a) FII helps bring better management skills and technology, while FDI only brings in capital
    (b) FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors
    (c) FDI flows only into the secondary market, while FII targets primary market
    (d) FII is considered to be more stable than FDI
Ans. b
(74)     A genetically engineered form of brinjal, known as the Bt-brinjal, has been developed. The objective of this is
    (a) To make it pest-resistant
    (b) To improve its taste and nutritive qualities
    (c) To make it drought-resistant
    (d) To make its shelf-life longer
Ans. a
(75)     With reference to “Aam Admi Bima Yojana”, consider the following statements:
    1. The member insured under the scheme must be the head of the family or an earning member of the family in a rural landless household.
    2. The member insured must be in the age group of 30 to 65 years.
    3. There is a provision for free scholarship for up to two children of the insured who are studying between classes 9 and 12.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. c
(76)     Regular intake of fresh fruits and vegetables is recommended in the die since they are a good source of antioxidants. How do antioxidants help a person maintain health and promote longevity?
    (a) They activate the enzyme necessary for vitamin synthesis in the body and help prevent vitamin deficiency
    (b) They prevent excessive oxidation of carbohydrates, fats and protein in the body and help avoid unnecessary wastage of energy
    (c) They neutralize the free radical produced in the body during metabolism
    (d) They activate certain genes in the cells of the body and help delay the ageing process
Ans. a
(77)     Regarding the Indus Valley Civilization, consider the following statements:
    1. It was predominantly a secular civilization and the religious element, though present, did not dominate the scene,
    2. During this period, cotton was used for manufacturing textiles in India.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
(78)     The lower Gangetic plain is characterized by humid climate with high temperature throughout the year. Which one among the following pairs of crops is most suitable for this region?
    (a) Paddy and cotton
    (b) Wheat and Jute
    (c) Paddy and Jute
    (d) Wheat and cotton
Ans. c
(79)     What could be the main reason/reasons for the formation of African and Eurasian desert belt?
    1. It is located in the sub-tropical high pressure cells.
    2. It is under the influence of warm ocean currents.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. a
(80)     The jet aircrafts fly very easily and smoothly in the lower stratosphere. What could be the appropriate explanation?
    1. There are no clouds or water vapour in the lower stratosphere.
    2. There are no vertical winds in the lower stratosphere.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct in this context?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
(81)     Consider the following statements:
    1. Biodiversity is normally greater in the lower latitudes as compared to the higher latitudes.
    2. Along the mountain gradients, biodiversity is normally greater in the lower altitudes as compared to the higher altitudes.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans.?
(82)     The Brahmaputra, Irrawady and Mekong rivers originate in Tibet and flow through narrow and parallel mountain ranges in their upper reaches. Of these rivers, Brahmaputra makes a “U” turn in its course to flow into India. This “U” turn is due to
    (a) Uplift of folded Himalayan series
    (b) Syntaxial bending of geologically young Himalayas
    (c) Geo-tectonic disturbance in the tertiary folded mountain chains
    (d) Both (a) and (b) above
Ans. ?
(83) A state in India has the following characteristics:
    1. Its northern part is arid and semi-arid.
    2. Its central part produces cotton.
    3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops.
    Which one of the following states has all of the above characteristics?
    (a) Andhra Pradesh
    (b) Gujarat
    (c) Karnataka
    (d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. b
(84)     What is “Virtual Private Network”?
    (a) It is a private computer network of an organization where the remote users can transmit encrypted information through the server of the organization
    (b) It is a computer network across a public internet that provides users access to their organization’s network while maintaining the security of the information transmitted
    (c) It is a computer network in which users can access a shared pool of computing resources through a service provider
    (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is a correct description of Virtual Private Network
Ans. b
(85)     The “dharma” and “rita” depict a central idea of ancient Vedic civilization of India, In this context, consider the following statements:
    1. Dharma was a conception of obligations and of the discharge of one’s duties to oneself and to others.
    2. Rita was the fundamental moral law governing the functioning of the universe and all it contained.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 only
    (c) Both 1 and 2
    (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. c
(86)     In the context of global oil prices, “Brent crude oil” is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply?
    1. It is a major classification of crude oil.
    2. It is sourced from North Sea.
    3. It does not contain sulphur.
    4. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 2 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only .
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
(87)The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to
    (a) Slow down the speed of neutrons
    (b) Increase the speed of neutrons
    (c) Cool down the reactor
    (d) Stop the nuclear reaction
Ans. a
(88)     In India, if a religious sect/community is given “the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to?
    1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions.
    2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha.
    3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only’
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. c
(89)     India is home to lakhs of persons with disabilities. What are the benefits available to them under me law?
    1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools.
    2. Preferential allotment of land for getting up business.
    3. Ramps in public buildings.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(90)     With what purpose is the-Government of India promoting the concept of “Mega Food Parks”?
    1. To provide good infrastructure facilities for the food processing industry-
    2. To increase the processing of perishable items and reduce wastage.
    3. To provide emerging and eco—friendly food processing technologies to entrepreneurs.
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 2 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. d
(91) The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from
    (a) The President of India
    (b) The Parliament of India
    (c) The Prime. Minister of India
    (d) The Union Finance, Minister
Ans. b
(92) All revenues received by the Union. Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the
    (a) Contingency Fund of India
    (b) Public Account
    (c) Consolidated Fund of India
    (d) Deposits and Advances Fund
Ans. c
(93) Microfinance is the provision of financial services to people of low-income groups. This includes both the consumers and the self-employed. The service/services rendered under micro-finance is/are:
    1. Credit facilities
    2. Savings facilities
    3. Insurance facilities
    4. Fund Transfer facilities
    Select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 4 only
    (c) 2 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. d
(94)     Southeast Asia has captivated the attention of global community over space and time as a geostrategically significant region. Which among the following is the most convincing explanation for this global perspective?
    (a) It was the hot theatre during the Second World War
    (b) Its location between the Asian powers of China and India
    (c) It was the arena of superpower confrontation during the Cold War period
    (d) Its location between the Pacific and Indian oceans and its pre-eminent maritime character
Ans. d
(95)     A company marketing food products advertises that its items do not contain trans-fats. What does this campaign signify to the customers?
    1. The food products are not made out of hydrogenated oils.
    2. The food products are not made out of animal fats/oils.
    3. The oils used are not likely to damage the cardiovascular health of the consumers.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 2 and 3 only
    (c) 1 and 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. ?
(96)     Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act”?
    (a) Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households
    (b) Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households
    (c) Adult members of households of all backward communities
    (d) Adult members of any household
Ans. d
(97)     With reference to “Look East Policy” of India, consider the following statements:
    1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in the East Asian affairs.
    2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of Cold War.
    3. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbours in Southeast and East Asia.
    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
    (a) 1 only
    (b) 1 and 3 only
    (c) 3 only
    (d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. b
(98)     When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha,
    (a) the Budget is modified and presented again
    (b) the Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions
    (c) the Union Finance Minister is asked to resign,
    (d) the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers
Ans. d
(99)     Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?
    (a) To vote in public elections
    (b) To develop the scientific temper
    (c) To safeguard public property
    (d) To abide by me Constitution and respect its ideals
Ans. a
(100) With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?
    (a) It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development
    (b) It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertakings
    (c) It ensures transparency in financial administration
    (d) None of the statements (a), (b) and (c) given above is correct in this context
Ans. D

Allahabad Bank P.O. 2011 General Awareness Solved Paper

Allahabad Bank P.O. 2011 General Awareness Solved Paper
Allahabad Bank P.O. Solved Paper

1. Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of Free Trade Agreement, India has done with many countries ?
1. To provide support to entrepreneurs for setting up new projects in tiny/SSI sector.
2. For undertaking expansion of business.
3. To support technology up-gradation.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) All 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)


2. Which of the following organisations issue the rules of global trade ?
(A) World Bank
(B) World Trade Organisation
(C) Foreign Exchange Dealers’ Association
(D) Directorate General and Foreign Trade
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)


3. One single statement that depicts the financial position of a bank and/or business enterprise at a given point of time is called—
(A) Statement of product details
(B) Reconciliation Statement
(C) Balance Sheet
(D) Quarterly returns submitted to RBI
(E) Trading and manufacturing account
Ans : (C)




4. Banks borrow money from the RBI on which of the following rates ?
(A) Reverse Repo Rate
(B) Repo Rate
(C) SLR
(D) CRR
(E) Savings Rate
Ans : (B)


5. The Reverse mortgage scheme is launched to give benefit to which of the following groups of society ?
(A) Govt. employees
(B) Senior Citizens
(C) Unemployed youth
(D) War widows
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)


6. What does the letter ‘M’ depict in the term SME as used in the financial world ?
(A) Maximum
(B) Medium
(C) Mercantile
(D) Mutual
(E) Ministry
Ans : (B)


7. One of the major challenges banking industry is facing these days is deliberate efforts of some people to bring money earned through illegal activities in circulation. Which of the following acts is passed to prevent this activity ?
(A) Payment & Settlements Act
(B) Banking Regulation Act
(C) Negotiable Instrument Act
(D) Narcotics and Psychotropic Substance Act
(E) Prevention of Money laundering Act
Ans : (E)


8. Which of the following organizations provides guarantee to the exporters ?
(A) Exim Bank
(B) Export Credit Guarantee Corporation
(C) Director General Foreign Trade
(D) Reserve Bank of India
(E) Registrar of companies
Ans : (B)


9. Which of the following terms is not used in Banking World ?
(A) Credit
(B) Rate
(C) Financial Status
(D) Discount
(E) Absolute zero
Ans : (E)


10. What is the full form of IRR as used in banking/financial sectors ?
(A) Internal Rate of Return
(B) Internal Revaluation Reserve
(C) Investment Reserve Ratio
(D) Internal Risk Return
(E) None of the above
Ans : (A)


11. Which of the following organisations provides credit history of the borrowers ?
(A) CIBIL
(B) ARCIL
(C) SEBI
(D) RBI
(E) CCIL
Ans : (A)


12. Banks need liquidity to meet which of the following objectives of banking ?
1.Meet deposit withdrawal
2.Fund loan demands
3.Maintain public confidence
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) Only 2 and 3
Ans : (D)


13. According to latest Economic Survey, which of the following sectors will provide largest share to Indian economy in the days to come?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Industry
(C) Services
(D) Exports
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)


14. Which one of the following group represents key industries ?
1. Crude oil, electricity
2. Petroleum refining and finished steel
3. Cement and coal
(A) Only group 1
(B) Only group 2
(C) Only groups 1 and 2
(D) Only group 3
(E) All groups 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)


15. Which one of the following is covered in the list of services for service tax purposes ?
1. Insurance/health services
2. Hotel accommodation/air travel services
3. Money changers/legal services
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)


16. Which of the following agencies is providing Unique Identity Cards to all Indian Residents ?
(A) Election Commission of India
(B) Ministry Foreign Affairs
(C) Govt. of Maharashtra
(D) Border Secutiry Force
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)


17. Vikram Pandit is associated with which of the following banks ?
(A) Yes Bank
(B) ICICI Bank
(C) Citigroup
(D) HSBC
(E) State Bank of India
Ans : (C)


18. Banks make frequent changes in their product profile including introduction of new products etc. This is called—
(A) Product Control
(B) Product enhancement
(C) Product marketing
(D) Product enrichment
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)


19. Banking and financial services, all over the world, are regulated usually by Monetary Authority of the land. Who controls this function in India?
(A) Ministry of Finance
(B) SEBI
(C) RBI
(D) IRDA
(E) FEDAI
Ans : (C)


20. As per guidelines of the RBI, banks are to provide appropriate banking facilities to habitations having population in excess of 2000 by which year ?
(A) 2011
(B) 2012
(C) 2015
(D) 2016
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)


21. Which one of the following is the target fixed for maintaining fiscal deficit in the Union Budget of India ?
(A) 4•6 per cent of total budget
(B) 4•6 per cent of GDP
(C) 3•6 per cent of total budget
(D) 3•6 per cent of GDP
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)


22. FIMMDA stands for—
(A) Foreign Investment Markets & Derivatives Market Association
(B) Fixed Income Money Markets and Derivatives Association
(C) Fixed Income and Money Market Development Association
(D) Floating Income and Money Markets Derivative Assets
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)


23. On which one of the following issues, a group of top business leaders and other eminent citizens have expressed their concern to the Govt. of India ?
(A) Corporate Governance
(B) Fiscal deficit
(C) Inflation
(D) Governance deficit
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)


24. Nobel Laureate Muhammed Yunus belongs to which one of the following countries ?
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) Pakistan
(C) Maldives
(D) Bangladesh
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)


25. Who is the author of the book ‘Darkness At Noon’ ?
(A) V. S. Naipaul
(B) Chetan Bhagat
(C) Arthur Koestler
(D) Vikram Seth
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)


26. For which one of the following purposes, Mega Food Parks scheme was introduced by the Government of India ?
(A) To provide better price to farmers
(B) To improve the productivity of food crops
(C) To control the prices of food items
(D) To avoid wastage of fruits and vegetables stored for export
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)


27. Which of the following terms is not used in banking ?
(A) Debit Card
(B) Credit Card
(C) Kisan Card
(D) ELISA Test
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)


28. Which of the following is the reason, owing to which Government charges export duty on some export items ?
(A) It is to get benefit of high international prices
(B) To improve the tax collection targets
(C) It is as per international practices
(D) To ensure the smooth availability of the items in India
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)


29. Pipavav Port is located in which of the following States ?
(A) Odisha
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Gujarat
(E) West Bengal
Ans : (D)


30. Which of the following is/are the objective(s) of our monetary policy ?
1. Anchor inflation expectations
2. Actively manage liquidity
3. Maintain interest rate regime consistent with price output and financial stability
(A) Only 1
(B) All 1, 2 and 3
(C) Both 1 and 3
(D) Only 2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)


31. With which one of the following fields was Pandit Bhimsen Joshi associated ?
(A) Dance
(B) Music
(C) Short-story writing
(D) Novels
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)


32. For which of the following purposes, RBI has constituted a Working Group with Shri Deepak Mohanty as Chairman ?
(A) Deregulation of primary markets
(B) Deregulation of secondary markets
(C) Deregulation of Savings Bank Rates
(D) Introduction of Base Rate
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)


33. Who is Kapil Sibal ?
(A) Coal Minister of India
(B) Civil Aviation Minister of India
(C) Telecom Minister of India
(D) Economic Advisor to Prime Minister of India
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)


34. Which of the following will set up core banking infrastructure for rural banks ?
(A) SIDBI
(B) IBA
(C) RBI
(D) SBI
(E) NABARD
Ans : (E)


35. Colonel Muammar al Gaddafi is associated with which one of the following countries ?
(A) Libya
(B) Beharin
(C) Yemen
(D) Tunisia
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)


36. What is Gross Domestic Product ?
(A) It is the cost of production of all final goods and services made in the country
(B) It is the cost of services made within the borders of a country in a year
(C) It is the market value of all final goods and services made in the country
(D) It is the market value of all final goods and services made within the borders of a country in a year
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)


37. Which of the following metals is used for generation of Nuclear Power ?
(A) Silver
(B) Gold
(C) Uranium
(D) Copper
(E) Barium
Ans : (C)


38. In which one of the following States, India’s first Islamic Bank is proposed to be set up ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Odisha
(D) Bihar
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)


39. In which one of the following States, Niyamgiri Bauxite Mining Project is proposed to be set ?
(A) Odisha
(B) Jharkhand
(C) West Bengal
(D) Bihar
(E) Chhattisgarh
Ans : (A)


40. Which of the following terms is not used in Economics ?
(A) Demand and Supply
(B) Ad Valoram Tax
(C) Break even
(D) HIV positive
(E) Cost benefit analysis
Ans : (D)


41. For which one of the following reasons Finance Minister denied entry of NRI funds for infra bonds ?
(A) It will bring in more liquidity in the country
(B) NRIs can withdraw their funds any time
(C) It will bring interest burden on the country
(D) It could lead to losses at the time of redemption because of fluctuations in the Indian Currency
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)


42. What is ‘financial inclusion’ ?
1. Easy access to bank accounts for safe parking of savings
2. Availability of cheap credits through appropriately designed loans for poor and low income households and small entrepreneurs
3. Availability of basic financial products like insurance
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Both 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)


43. According to the Securities and Insurance Laws (Amendment) Bill 2010, who amongst the following will be Vice-Chairman of joint commission to resolve differences amongst the financial regulators ?
(A) Finance Minsiter, GOI
(B) Deputy Chairman, Planning Commission
(C) SEBI Chairman
(D) Chairman, Central Vigilance Commission
(E) RBI, Governor
Ans : (E)


44. Which of the following terms is used in Economics ?
(A) Keynesian
(B) Adsorption
(C) Affinity Matrix
(D) Gene Flow
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)


45. Which one of the following is the directive given to the Govt. of India in the Financial Stability Report submitted to it ?
(A) Focus on financial consistency
(B) To reduce fiscal deficit
(C) To ensure GDP growth
(D) To reduce revenue deficit
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)


46. In which one of the following States, Jangi-Thopon and Thopon-Powari Power Projects are proposed to be set up ?
(A) J & K
(B) H. P.
(C) U. P.
(D) Manipur
(E) Meghalaya
Ans : (B)


47. Which one of the following is the proposal under the Food Security Law ?
(A) To provide 25 kg of food-grains to ration card holders
(B) To provide 25 kg of food-grains to targeted beneficiaries
(C) To provide 35 kg of food-grains to ration card holders
(D) To provide 35 kg of food-grains to targeted beneficiaries
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)


48. Which one of the following are key policy rates used by RBI to influence interest rates ?
1. Bank Rate/the Repo Rate
2. Reverse Repo Rate
3. CRR/SLR
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) All 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 3
(E) Both 1 and 3
Ans : (C)


49. For giving cooking gas connection to poor families, which of the following one time subvention (in rupees) will be provided by the Planning Commission ?
(A) 500
(B) 600
(C) 750
(D) 1000
(E) 1400
Ans : (E)


50. Which one of the following rates signal the RBI’s long term out-look on interest rates ?
(A) Repo Rate
(B) Reverse Repo Rate
(C) Bank Rate
(D) SLR
(E) CRR
Ans : (C)


51. What do you understand by ‘Para Banking’ services ?
(A) Eligible financial services rendered by banks
(B) Utility services provided by banks
(C) Services provided through business correspondents
(D) Services provided to armed force personnel
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)


52. For which one of the following reasons, the Steel Ministry wants complete ban on export of iron ore from India ?
(A) The price of iron ore exports is not competitive
(B) The iron ore exports do not provide any value addition to exports
(C) The prices of iron ore are high and as such the exports of the ore should be banned
(D) Iron ore is a non-renewable resource like coal and petroleum products, hence it should be preserved
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)


53. What is a cross Border Exchange ?
(A) Trading of foreign currency in India
(B) Trading of Indian rupee in exchange of other currencies/ goods
(C) Hawala transactions in Indian Rupee
(D) Unauthorized remittance of Indian Rupee
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)


54. What is Cartosat-2B ?
(A) It is an advanced remote sensing statellite built by ISRO
(B) It is a warhead developed by DRDO
(C) It is an educational project launched by UGC
(D) It is an advanced computer developed by IIT Kanpur
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)


55. For which one of the following reasons RBI has decided to undertake mid-quarter policy reviews ?
1. To realign its policies
2. To take steps and ensure smooth flow of credit
3. To provide guidance to the economy
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)


56. Which one of the following is the objective of Financial Stability and Development Council ?
(A) To address inter-regulatory issues only
(B) To focus on financial literacy only
(C) To focus on financial inclusion only
(D) Only (A) and (B)
(E) All (A) , (B) and (C)
Ans : (C)


57. For which one of the following reasons has the Planning Com-mission decided to convert itself into a system Reforms Commission ?
(A) It is to make people to people contact
(B) It is to understand the problems of people
(C) It is to review the implementation of its policies
(D) It is aimed at changing economic profile of the country
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)


58. Which one of the following sectors in India has attracted highest amount of Foreign Direct Investment during 2009-10 ?
(A) Manufacturing
(B) Construction
(C) Wholesale and Retail Trade
(D) Financial Insurance, Real Estate
(E) Civil Aviation
Ans : (B)


59. Which of the following is/are a renewable source of energy ?
1. Wind
2.Solar
3. Thermal
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) All 1, 2 and 3
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (E)


60. Expand the term SWIFT—
(A) Society for Worldwide Inter-national Financial Telecommunications
(B) Society for Worldwide Inter-bank Financial Telecommunications
(C) Society for Worldwide Inter-national Financial Transfers
(D) Society for Worldwide Inter-bank Fiscal Transactions
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)


61. For which one of the following reasons. NABARD has set up joint liability groups (JLG) of farmers ?
(A) To facilitate delivery of credit to farmers
(B) To facilitate better delivery of credit to farmers through informal sources
(C) To facilitate better delivery of credit to share croppers and those who do not have their own land
(D) To facilitate better delivery of credit to farmers through Panchayats
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)


62. Which of the following terms is not used in Banking World ?
(A) Holding Company
(B) Post dated cheque
(C) Credit
(D) Time deposit
(E) Centripetal force
Ans : (E)


63. What is the extent of claim that can be entertained by a Lok Adalat ?
(A) Up to lakhs
(B) Up to 10 lakhs
(C) Up to 20 lakhs
(D) Up to 50 lakhs
(E) No limit
Ans : (A)


64. ‘ASHA’ is a scheme for providing which of the following services to the people in India ?
(A) Health Service
(B) Clean water
(C) Primary Education
(D) Employment for 100 days
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)


65. Some private organizations are running e-choupals, to help which of the following section of society ?
(A) Farmers
(B) Small businessman
(C) Cooperative Credit Societies
(D) School-going children
(E) Unemployed youth
Ans : (A)


66. Which is the currency of U.A.E. ?
(A) Dirham
(B) Dinar
(C) Dollar
(D) Taka
(E) Pound Sterling
Ans : (A)


67. Who amongst the following is the author of the book ‘A bend in the River’ ?
(A) Chetan Bhagat
(B) V. S. Naipaul
(C) Kiran Desai
(D) Anita Desai
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)


68. Which of the following terms is used in game of Cricket ?
(A) Love
(B) Scoop
(C) LBW
(D) Tee
(E) Back-hand drive
Ans : (C)


69. Which one of the following was India’s per cent GDP growth during 2009-10 ?
(A) 6•7
(B) 9•2
(C) 7•4
(D) 9•7
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)


70. Which one of the following countries in Europe is facing financial crisis ?
(A) Ireland
(B) Portugal
(C) Rumania
(D) Hungary
(E) France
Ans : (D)


71. Which of the following schemes is launched for school children ?
(A) Rajlakshmi
(B) Kutir Jyoti
(C) Mid Day Meal
(D) Swajal Dhara
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)


72. Loans of small or very small amounts given to low income group people are known as—
(A) Investment Loans
(B) Micro Credit
(C) Savings Loan
(D) Secured Loans
(E) Cash Credit Loans
Ans : (B)


73. Which of the following is the Central Bank of U.S.A. ?
(A) Federation of Banks in U.S.A.
(B) Citigroup U.S.A.
(C) Bank of America
(D) Central Bank of U.S.A.
(E) Federal Reserve System
Ans : (E)


74. Which one of the following countries was second biggest net importer of goods and services in the year 2009 ?
(A) U.S.A.
(B) India
(C) China
(D) Germany
(E) Russia
Ans : (B)


75. The activity of purchasing shares of various companies is called—
(A) On-line Trading
(B) Share Trading
(C) Real estate investment
(D) Corporate Trading
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

SBI Bank PO Exam 2010 Reasoning Solved Question Paper

SBI Bank PO Exam 2010 Reasoning Solved Question Paper
SBI PO Exam 2010 Reasoning Solved Question Paper


1. If it is possible to make only one meaningful word with the Third, Seventh, Eighth and Tenth letters of the word COMPATIBILITY, which of the following would be the last letter of that word ? If no such word can be made, give ‘X’ as your answer and if more than one such word can be formed, give your answer as ‘Y’.
(A) I
(B) B
(C) L
(D) X
(E) Y
Ans : (B)


2. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group ?
(A) Stem
(B) Tree
(C) Root
(D) Branch
(E) Leaf
Ans : (B)


3. How many meaningful three letter English words can be formed with the letters AER, using each letter only once in each word ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) Four
Ans : (D)


4. In a certain code FINE is written HGPC.
How is SLIT written in that code ?
(A) UTGR
(B) UTKR
(C) TUGR
(D) RUGT
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)


5. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, ‘Peach’ is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground ?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)


6. If the digits in the number 86435192 are arranged in ascending order, what will be the difference between the digits which are second from the right and fourth from the left in the new arrangement ?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
(E) None
Ans : (D)


7. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)


8. If in a certain language LATE is coded as 8&4$ and HIRE is coded as 7*3$ then how will HAIL be coded in the same language ?
(A) 7&8*
(B) &7*8
(C) 7*&8
(D) 7&*8
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)


9. How many such pairs of letters are there in word ENGLISH, each of which has as many letters between its two letters as there are between them in the English alphabets ?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
(E) More than three
Ans : (E)


10. In a certain code ‘na pa ka so’ means ‘birds fly very high’, ‘ri so la pa’ means ‘birds are very beautiful’ and ‘ti me ka bo’ means ‘the parrots could fly’. Which of the following is the code for ‘high’ in that language ?
(A) na
(B) ka
(C) bo
(D) so
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)


Directions—(Q. 11–15) In each of the questions below are given three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. Read both the conclusions and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Read the statements and the conclusions which follow it and
Give answer—
(A) if only conclusion I is true.
(B) if only conclusion II is true.
(C) if either conclusion I or conclusion II is true.
(D) if neither conclusion I nor conclusion II is true
(E) if both conclusions I and II are true.


11. Statements : All stars are suns.
Some suns are planets.
All planets are satellites.
Conclusions :
I. Some satellites are stars.
II. No star is a satellite.
Ans : (C)


12. Statements : All fishes are birds.
All birds are rats.
All rats are cows.
Conclusions :
I. All birds are cows
II. All rats are fishes
Ans : (A)


13. Statements : All curtains are rods.
Some rods are sheets.
Some sheets are pillows.
Conclusions :
I. Some pillows are rods.
II. Some rods are curtains.
Ans : (B)
14. Statements : Some walls are windows.
Some windows are doors.
All doors are roofs.
Conclusions :
I. Some doors are walls.
II. No roof is a window.
Ans : (D)
15. Statements : All switches are plugs.
Some plugs are bulbs.
All bulbs are sockets.
Conclusions :
I. Some sockets are plugs.
II. Some plugs are switches.
Ans : (E)
Directions—(Q. 16–20) Study the sets of numbers given below and answer the questions, which follow :
489 – 541 – 654 – 953 – 983
16. If in each number, the first and the last digits are interchanged, which of the following will be the second highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (C)
17. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order, which of the following will be the lowest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (B)
18. Which of the following numbers will be obtained if the first digit of lowest number is subtracted from the second digit of highest number after adding one to each of the numbers ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)
19. If five is subtracted from each of the numbers, which of the following numbers will be the difference between the second digit of second highest number and the second digit of the highest number ?
(A) Zero
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)
20. If in each number the first and the second digits are interchanged, which will be the third highest number ?
(A) 489
(B) 541
(C) 654
(D) 953
(E) 783
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 21–25) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions, which follow :
‘A – B’ means ‘A is father of B’
‘A + B’ means ‘A is daughter of B’
‘A ÷ B’ means ‘A is son of B’
‘A × B’ means ‘A is wife of B’
21. Which of the following means P is grandson of S ?
(A) P + Q – S
(B) P ÷ Q × S
(C) P ÷ Q + S
(D) P × Q ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
22. How is P related to T in the expression ‘P + S – T’ ?
(A) Sister
(B) Wife
(C) Son
(D) Daughter
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
23. In the expression ‘P + Q × T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Mother
(B) Father
(C) Son
(D) Brother
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
24. Which of the following means T is wife of P ?
(A) P × S ÷ T
(B) P ÷ S × T
(C) P – S ÷ T
(D) P + T ÷ S
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
25. In the expression ‘P × Q – T’ how is T related to P ?
(A) Daughter
(B) Sister
(C) Mother
(D) Can’t be determined
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
Directions—(Q. 26–30) In each of these questions a group of letters is given followed by four combinations of number/symbol lettered (A), (B), (C) & (D). Letters are to be coded as per the scheme and conditions given below. You have to find out the serial letter of the combination, which represents the letter group. Serial letter of that combination is your answer. If none of the combinations is correct, your answer is (E) i.e. None of these :
Letters# Q M S I N G D K A L P R B J E
Number/ Symbol# 7 @ 4 # % $ 6 1 2 £ 5 * 9 8 3
Conditions :
(i) If the first letter is a consonant and the last a vowel, both are to be coded as the code of the vowel.
(ii) If the first letter is a vowel and the last a consonant, the codes for the first and the last are to be interchanged.
(iii) If no vowel is present in the group of letters, the second and the fifth letters are to be coded as ©.
26. BKGQJN
(A) 9©$7©%
(B) ©9$7%©
(C) 91$78%
(D) %1$789
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
27. IJBRLG
(A) #89*£$
(B) #89*£#
(C) $89*£#
(D) $89*£$
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
28. BARNIS
(A) 92*#%4
(B) 924#*%
(C) 92*#%9
(D) 42*#%4
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)


29. EGAKRL
(A) #£$21*
(B) £$21*3
(C) £$21*#
(D) #£$21#
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)


30. DMBNIA
(A) 6@9%#2
(B) 2@9%#6
(C) 2@9%#2
(D) 2©9%#2
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)


Directions—(Q. 31–35) Study the following information carefully to answer these questions.
Eight persons A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H work for three different companies namely X, Y and Z. Not more than three persons work for a company. There are only two ladies in the group who have different specializations and work for different companies. Of the group of friends, two have specialization in each HR, Finance and Marketing. One member is an engineer and one is a doctor. H is an HR specialist and works with a Marketing specialist B who does not work for company Y. C is an engineer and his sister works in company Z. D is a specialist in HR working in company X while her friend G is a finance specialist and works for company Z. No two persons having the same specialization work together. Marketing specialist F works for company Y and his friend A who is a Finance expert works for company X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a marketing specialist or a doctor.
31. For which of the following companies does C work ?
(A) Y
(B) X
(C) Z
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)


32. Which of the following represents the pair working in the same company ?
(A) D and C
(B) A and B
(C) A and E
(D) H and F
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)


33. Which of the following combination is correct ?
(A) C–Z-Engineer
(B) E–X–Doctor
(C) H–X–HR
(D) C–Y–Engineer
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)


34. Who amongst the friends is a doctor ?
(A) H
(B) E
(C) C
(D) Either E or C
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)


35. Which of the following pairs represents the two ladies in the group ?
(A) A and D
(B) B and D
(C) D and G
(D) Data inadequate
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)

IES 2011 Civil Engineering Solved Question Paper

IES 2011 Civil Engineering Solved Question Paper
IES Civil Engineering Solved Question Paper I


1. For different concrete specimens, each hydrated tot he same degree, the permeability is
(a)  Higher with lower water cement ratio and higher cement content
(b) Lower with lower water cement ratio and higher cement content
(c) Lower with higher water cement ratio and lower cement content
(d)  Lower with higher water cement ratio and higher cement content
Ans: (b)


2. Modulus of elasticity of concrete is increased with
(a) Higher W/C ratio (b) Shorter curing period
(c) Lesser vibration (d) Increase in age
Ans: (d)


3. Increase-strain curve of concrete is
(a)  A perfect straight line upto failure
(b) Straight line up to 0.002% strain value and then parabolic upto failure
(c) Nearly parabolic up to 0.002% strain value and the a straight line upto failure
(d) Hyperbolic up to 0.002% strain value and then a straight line upto failure
Ans: (c)


5. When percentage of mica present in sand is large, it
(a) Reduces the strength of mortar, or concrete
(b) Increases the strength of mortar or concrete
(c) Has no effect on mortar, or concrete strength
(d) Enhances the strength of mortar, or concrete, but only marginally
Ans: (c)


6. Consider the following statements:
1. Dry rot in sap wood is caused by fungal attack
2. Brown rot in coniferous woods is a result of fungal attack
3. Alternate wetting and drying of unseasoned timber causes ‘powdery’ form of decay
in wood.
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 b)1 and 2 only c)2 and 3 only d)1 and 3 only
Ans: (a)


7.  Which of the following statements refer to correct purpose as regards testing of concrete
by ultrasonic pulse velocity method?
1.  To assess the quality of concrete in-situ.
2. To determine the dynamic modulus of elasticity of concrete.
3. To locate the presence of cracks in it
(a)  1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d)1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)


8. If ‘W’ is the percentage of water required for normal consistency of cement, water to be
added for determination of initial setting time is
(a) 0.50 W (b) 0.62 W (c) 0.75 W (d) 0.85 W
Ans: (d)


9. Consider the following statements
Fibre saturation point in wood is reached when
1. Free water is removed 2. Cell water is removed
3. Shrinkage of wood is rapid 4. Strength gain is rapid
Which of these statements are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4
Ans: (d)


10. Which of the following theories of failure is most appropriate for a brittle
material?
(a) Maximum principal strain theory
(b) Maximum principal stress theory
(c) Maximum shear stress theory
(d) Maximum strain energy theory
Ans: (b)


11. A simply supported beam AB is subjected to a concentrated load at C, the
centre of the span.  The area of the SF diagram from A to C will give
a) BM at C b) Load at S
3c) SF at C d)Difference between BM values at A and C
Ans: (d)






14. Consider the following statements:
1. Failure occurs beyond elastic limit
2. Rupture takes place immediately after elastic limit
3. Permanent set occurs beyond elastic limit
Which of these are considered in the theories of failure?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only d) 1 and 2 only
Ans: (d)




23. The moment capacity of section at plastic hinge equals
a) Yield moment
b) Zero
c) Fully plastic moment
d) Twice the yield moment
Ans: (c)


24. Which one of the following is the correct ratio of plastic moment to yield moment
for a simply supported beam of uniform square cross section throughout the span
(a) 1.5 (b) 1.7 (c) 2.0 (d) 2.34
Ans: (a)


25. A fixed beam with central  point  load undergoes a slight  settlement  at  one end.
Select suitable answer from the following:
(a) Moment induced at both ends will be same
(b) Moment induced at the end that has undergone settlement will be maximum
(c) Moment induced will be maximum at the end having no settlement
(d) Zero moment at the end that has settled.
Ans: (c)


26. An increase in temperature on the top fibre of a simply supported beam will cause
(a) Downward deflection
(b) Upward deflection
(c) No deflection
(d) Angular rotation about neutral axis
Ans: (b)


37. In the  virtual  work method  of  plastic  analysis  of  steel  structures,  the  virtual quantity is
(a) Slope (b) Moment (c) Load (d) Displacement
Ans: (d)


38. A protective  or  decorative  non-structural  element  placed at  the  level  of  the  truss supports and column head is called
(a) Eaves girder (b) Baluster (c ) Eaves board (d) Tie girder
Ans: (c)


39. The purlins in roof trusses are placed at the panel points essentially to avoid
(a) Axial force in rafter (b) Shear force in rafter
(c ) Deflection in rafter (d) Bending moment in rafter
Ans: (d)


40. When the distance between centers of two adjacent  rivets connecting the members subjected to either  compression or  tension exceeds  the  maximum pitch,  then the additional rivets which are not subjected to the calculated stresses are known as
(a) Packing rivets (b) Long-grip rivets
(c) Tacking rivets (d) Auxiliary rivets
Ans: (c)


41. Which  of  the  following  conditions  is  to  be  satisfied  both  in  elastic  and  plastic
analyses?
(a) Equilibrium condition (b) Yield condition
(c ) Plastic moment condition (d) Mechanism condition
Ans: (a)


42. The base of a column is subjected to moment.  If the intensity of bearing pressure due to axial load is equal to stress due to moment, then the bearing pressure between the base and the concrete is
(a) Uniform compression throughout
(b) Zero at one end and compression at the other end
(c) Tension at one end and compression at the other end
(d) Compression, verying as a parabolic profile
Ans: (b)


43. The allowable shear stress in the web of mild steel beams decreases with
(a) Decrease in h/t ratio (b) Increase in h/t ratio
12(c ) Decrease in thickness (d) Increase in height
Where h is the height and t is the thickness
Ans: (b)


44. The most critical consideration in the design of a rolled steel column carrying axial loads is the
(a) Percentage elongation at yield and the net cross-sectional area
(b) Critical bending strength and axial yield strength of material
(c) Buckling strength based on the net area of the section and percentage elongation at ultimate load
(d) Compressive strength based on slenderness ratio and gross cross-sectional area.
Ans: (d)


45. For an I beam, the shape factor is 1.12.  If the allowable stress (with factor of safety in bending as 1.5) is increased by 20% for wind and earthquake loads, the modified load factor is
(a) 1.10 (b) 1.25 (c) 1.35 (d) 1.40
Ans: (d)


46. Top chord of a truss is continuous over joints l apart.  Effective lengths of the member in the plane perpendicular to the truss is
(a) 0.7 l (b) 0.85 l (c ) l (d) 1.5 l
Ans: (c)


47. The mechanism method and the statical method guide in estimating
(a) The lower and upper bounds respectively on the strength of structure
(b) The upper and lower bounds respectively on the strength of structure
(c) The lower bound on the strength of structure
(d) The upper bound on the strength of structure
Ans: (b)


48. If the shape factor of a section is 1.5 and the factor of safety to be adopted is 2, then the load factor will be
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 1.5 (d) 2
Ans: (a)