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Guidelines For conducting Teacher Eligibility Test (TET)

Guidelines for conducting Teacher Eligibility Test (TET)

Background and Rationale

The implementation of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009 requires the recruitment of a large number of teachers across the country in a time bound manner. Inspite of the enormity of the task, it is desirable to ensure that quality requirement for recruitment of teachers are not diluted at any cost. It is thereforenecessary to ensure that persons recruited as teachers possess the essential aptitude and ability to meet the challenges of teaching at the primary and upper primary level.

2 In accordance with the provisions of sub-section (1) of section 23 of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, the National Council forTeacher Education (NCTE) has laid down the minimum qualifications for a person to beeligible for appointment as a teacher in class I to VIII, vide its Notification dated August 23, 2010. A copy of the Notification is attached at Annexure 1. One of the essentialqualifications for a person to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in any of the schools referred to in clause (n) of section 2 of the RTE Act is that he/she should pass the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) which will be conducted by the appropriate Government.

3 The rationale for including the TET as a minimum qualification for a person to beeligible for appointment as a teacher is as under:

i. It would bring national standards and benchmark of teacher quality in therecruitment process;

ii. It would induce teacher education institutions and students from theseinstitutions to further improve their performance standards;

iii. It would send a positive signal to all stakeholders that the Government laysspecial emphasis on teacher quality

4 The TET examination may be conducted by a suitable professional bodydesignated by the appropriate Government for the purpose. It will be conducted inaccordance with the Guidelines hereunder.

Eligibility

5 The following persons shall be eligible for appearing in the TET:

i. A person who has acquired the academic and professional qualificationsspecified in the NCTE Notification dated 23 rd August 2010.

ii. A person who is pursuing any of the teacher education courses (recognized bythe NCTE or the RCI, as the case may be) specified in the NCTE Notification dated 23 rd August 2010.

iii. The eligibility condition for appearing in TET may be relaxed in respect of a 3 State/UT which has been granted relaxation under sub-section (2) of section 23 of the RTE Act. The relaxation will be specified in the Notification issued by theCentral Government under that sub-section.

Structure and Content of TET

6 The structure and content of the TET is given in the following paragraphs. Allquestions will be Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs), each carrying one mark, with fouralternatives out of which one answer will be correct. There will be no negative marking.The examining body should strictly adhere to the structure and content of the TETspecified below.

7 There will be two papers of the TET. Paper I will be for a person who intends to be a teacher for classes I to V. Paper II will be for a person who intends to be a teacher for classes VI to VIII. A person who intends to be a teacher either for classes I to V or forclasses VI to VIII will have to appear in both papers (Paper I and Paper II).

Paper I (for classes I to V); No. of MCQs – 150;

Duration of examination: one-and-a-half hours

Structure and Content (All Compulsory)

I	Child Development and Pedagogy	30 Multipul Choice Questions	30 Marks
Ii	Language I	30 Multipul Choice Questions	30 Marks
Iii	Language II	30 Multipul Choice Questions	30 Marks
Iv	Mathematics	30 Multipul Choice Questions	30 Marks
v	Environmental studies	30 Multipul Choice Questions	30 Marks

Nature and standard of questions

While designing and preparing the questions for Paper I, the examining body shall take the following factors into consideration:

• The test items on Child Development and Pedagogy will focus on educationalpsychology of teaching and learning relevant to the age group of 6-11 years. They will focus on understanding the characteristics and needs of diverse learners, interaction with learners and the attributes and qualities of a good facilitator of learning.

• The Test items for Language I will focus on the proficiencies related to themedium of instruction, (as chosen from list of prescribed language options in the application form).

• The Language II will be from among the prescribed options other than Language I. A candidate may choose any one language from the available language options and will be required to specify the same in the application

form. The test items in Language II will also focus on the elements of language,communication and comprehension abilities. 4

• The test items in Mathematics and Environmental Studies will focus on theconcepts, problem solving abilities and pedagogical understanding of thesubjects. In all these subject areas, the test items shall be evenly distributedover different divisions of the syllabus of that subject prescribed for classes I–Vby the appropriate Government.

• The questions in the tests for Paper I will be based on the topics of theprescribed syllabus of the State for classes I–V, but their difficulty standard, aswell as linkages, could be upto the secondary stage.

Paper II (for classes VI to VIII); No. of MCQs – 150;

Duration of examination : one-and-a-half hours

Structure and Content

I	Child Development and Pedagogy (compulsory )	30 Multipul Choice Questions	30 Marks
Ii	Language I (compulsory )	30 Multipul Choice Questions	30 Marks
Iii	Language II (compulsory )	30 Multipul Choice Questions	30 Marks

(iv) (a) For Mathematics and Science teacher : Mathematics and Science – 60 MCQs of 1 mark each

(b) For Social studies teacher : Social Studies – 60 MCQs of 1 mark each

(c) for any other teacher – either 4(a) or 4(b)

While designing and preparing the questions for Paper II, the examining body shall take the following factors into consideration:

• The test items on Child Development and Pedagogy will focus on educational psychology of teaching and learning, relevant to the age group 11-14 years. They will focus on understanding the characteristics, needs and psychology of diverse learners, interaction with learners and the attributes and qualities of a good facilitator of learning.

• The test items for Language I will focus on the proficiency related to the medium of instruction, as chosen from list of prescribed options in the application form.

• The Language II will be a language other than Language I. The person may choose any one language from among the available options and as in the specified list in the application form and attempt questions in the one indicated by the candidate in the application form by him. The Test items in Language II will also focus on the elements of language, communication and comprehension abilities.

• The test items in Mathematics and Science, and Social Studies will focus on the concepts, problem solving abilities and pedagogical understanding of these subjects. The test items of Mathematics and Science will be of 5 30 marks each. The test items shall be evenly distributed over different divisions of the syllabus of that subject as prescribed for classes VI-VIII by the appropriate government.

• The questions in the tests for Paper II will be based on the topics of theprescribed syllabus of the State for classes VI-VIII but their difficulty standard as well as linkages could be upto the senior secondary stage.

8 The question paper shall be bilingual – (i) in language(s) as decided by the appropriate Government; and (ii) English language.

Qualifying marks

9 A person who scores 60% or more in the TET exam will be considered as TET pass. School managements (Government, local bodies, government aided and unaided)

(a) may consider giving concessions to persons belonging to SC/ST, OBC,differently abled persons, etc., in accordance with their extant reservation policy;

(b) should give weightage to the TET scores in the recruitment process; however, qualifying the TET would not confer a right on any person forrecruitment/employment as it is only one of the eligibility criteria for appointment.

Applicability

10

(a) TET conducted by the Central Government shall apply to all schools referred to in

sub-clause (i) of clause (a) of section 2 of the RTE Act.

(b) TET conducted by a State Government/UT with legislature shall apply to :

(i) a school of the State Government/UT with legislature and local authority

referred to in sub-clause (i) of clause (n) of section 2 of the RTE Act; and

(ii) a school referred to in sub-clause (ii) of clause (n) of section 2 of the RTE Act in that State/UT.

A school at (i) and (ii) may also consider eligibility of a candidate who has obtained TET Certificate awarded by another State/UT with legislature. In case a State Government/UT with legislature decides not to conduct a TET, a school at (i) and (ii) in that State/UT would consider the TET conducted by the Central Government.

(c) A school referred to in sub-clause (iv) of clause (n) of section 2 of the RTE Act mayexercise the option of considering either the TET conducted by the Central Government or the TET conducted by the State Government/UT with legislature.

Frequency of conduct of TET and validity period of TET certificate

11 The appropriate Government should conduct a TET at least once every year. TheValidity Period of TET qualifying certificate for appointment will be decided by theappropriate Government subject to a maximum of seven years for all categories. But there will be no restriction on the number of attempts a person can take for acquiring a TET Certificate. A person who has qualified TET may also appear again for improving his/her score.

Procedure for conduct of the Test

12 The examining body shall formulate a detailed procedure and lay down instructionsfor conduct of the TET. Candidates should be informed that a very serious view will betaken of any malpractice or impersonation.

Legal Disputes

13 All legal disputes with regard to conduct of TET shall be subject to the jurisdiction ofthe appropriate Government.

Award of TET Certificate

14 The appropriate Government conducting the Test shall award a TET Certificate to all successful candidates. The certificate should contain the name and address of thecandidate, date of birth, Registration No. year/month of award of Certificate, marksobtained in each Paper, class level of its validity (Class I to V, class VI to VIII or both),and, in case of classes VI to VIII, the subject area (Science and Mathematics, SocialStudies, etc.). The certificate may be electronically generated with adequate securityfeatures. Appropriate may consider utilizing the services of specialized agencies forissuing de-materialized (demat) TET certificates as a security feature to avoid any kind ofmalpractice.

Monitoring

15 Following measures would be taken for monitoring the quality and administration ofthe TET:

(a) The appropriate Government shall appoint a Nodal Officer for the purpose ofTET.

(b) The NCTE would organize meetings of the Nodal Officers at least once everyyear.

(c) Every appropriate Government will forward a report of each TET to the NCTE in a format to be prescribed by the NCTE.

(d) The NCTE shall maintain data base and be the repository of experts andresources, including the technological tools for conduct of the TET, and shallshare it with the appropriate Government.

Click here To Download the (pdf) Full Copy: Teacher Eligibility Test

Guidelines for conducting Teachers Eligibility Test (TET) under the Right of Children to free and compulsory Education Act (RTE), in ANDHRA PRADESH

GOVERNMENT OF ANDHRA PRADESH

ABSTRACT

Secondary Education – Guidelines for conducting Teachers Eligibility Test (TET) under the Right of Children to free and compulsory Education Act (RTE), 2009 Eligibility Test – Orders – Issued.

———————————————————————————————————

SCHOOL EDUCATION (SE.GENL.II ) DEPARTMENT

G.O.Ms.No.51 Dated: 16^th April, 2011.

Read the following:-

1.	RTE 2009 of Ministry of Law and Justice, Govt., of India, Dated: 27.08.2009.
2.	From the NCTE, New Delhi, Lr.No.76-4/2010/Acad.A31215, Dated: 14.02.2011.
3.	From the Commissioner & Director of School Education, AP, Hyderabad Lr.Rc.No.40/N1-3/2011, dt: 22.03.2011.

O R D E R:

☼☼☼

In the reference 1^st read above, Govt. of India have enacted RTE Act 2009 on 26.08.2009 titled “Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education “Act, 2009. In accordance with  provision of sub-section (1) of section 23 of the RTE Act, National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), New Delhi had laid down minimum qualifications for a person to be eligible for appointment as a Teacher in Classes I to VIII in its Notification dated 23^rd August, 2010. The minimum qualifications include a Pass in Teacher Eligibility Test (TET). Pursuant to the said guidelines, it has been decided to conduct Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) for all persons, who aspire to become teacher for classes I to VIII in schools (Govt. /ZP/MP/Muncipal/Pvt.Aided & Pvt.Aided) in the State of A.P., every year twice, one in June/July and another in December/January.     The rationale for including the TET as a minimum qualification for a person to be eligible for appointment as a teacher is as under:

1. It would bring national standards and benchmark of teacher quality in the recruitment process.
2. It would induce teacher education institutions and students from these institutions to further improve their performance standards;

iii.         It would send a positive signal to all stakeholders that the                                                Government lays special emphasis on teacher quality.

2.        In the reference 3^rd read above, the Commissioner & Director of School Education, AP, Hyderabad has submitted proposals & guidelines for conducting Teacher Eligibility Test (TET).

3.         Government after careful examination of the proposal of Commissioner & Director of School Education, AP, Hyderabad here by issue the following guidelines/instructions for Teacher Eligibility Test (TET).

4.         In order to implement the conduct of TET, the committee is hereby constituted with the following members:-

1. Commissioner & Director of School Education         -Chairperson

2. Director, TET                                                                     – Convenor

3. Director, SCERT                                                              – Member

4. Director, Govt. Examinations                                         – Member

5. Joint Director (Services)                                                 – Member

5. The Committee is empowered to take decision on schedule for conduct of TET with Calendar of Activities, Logistics for conduct of TET, issue of Notification, etc.

6.         Director, SCERT will act as Director, TET till the new post of Director, TET is created.

7.         Further Govt. have decided to constitute a TET CELL for conduct of test with the following members:-

1. Director (TET) ( In the rank of Director )
2. One OSD in the rank of Addl. Director of School Education (Retired) (Chief Consultant)
3. Joint Director (Regular) to be taken on deputation
4. One consultant in the rank of Joint Director /Deputy Director (Retired)
5. Two Teacher Educators ( to be taken on deputation )

8.         This cell is responsible for implementing the decision taken by the above committee for conduct of TET.

9.         Qualifying Marks in TET and Award of Certificate

A person who scores 60% or more in the TET examination will be considered as TET pass in general. However, in respect of candidate belonging to SC/ST and differently abled (at least 40% handicap), 40% score shall be the minimum pass mark and in respect of candidate belonging to BC 50% score shall be the minimum pass mark in TET.The Government empower Director (TET) to issue a TET certificate to all candidates.

10.       Weightage of TET scores in the teacher recruitment process of the State

It is proposed to provide 20% weightage to TET scores in the Teacher Recruitment of the State Government. i.e., 20% weightage is for TET and 80% wieghtage for written test in Teacher Recruitment Test (TRT) based on which selection lists can be prepared. By awarding this weightage of 20% of TET to TRT, the candidates will be encouraged to improve (if they so desire) their TET score by appearing a number of times for TET as TET is conducted once in 6 months.

11.       Exemption from Passing TET:

Teachers who were appointed before NCTE notification,               dt: 23.08.2010 by DSC or by   competent authority in Govt./Local Authority as per Recruitment rules prevalent at that time are exempted from appearing at TET exam. However, Teachers working in private schools whose appointments were not approved by competent authority in Government are not exempted from passing TET. Such teachers of private unaided school can appear at TET conducted by either State Government or Central Government. In respect of non approved teachers working in private aided schools, they should invariably appear at TET conducted by State Government only.

12.       Content, structure and other details of TET are enclosed in the annexure to the G.O.

13.       There shall be no additional financial commitment to Government on account of conduct of TET. Salaries for TET Cell staff, maintenance of TET cell conveyance, processing of results etc., shall be met from TET funds only.

14.       The Commissioner & Director of School Education, Hyderabad/ Director of TET / The Director, SCERT/The Director of Govt. Examinations shall take necessary action.

( BY ORDER AND IN THE NAME OF THE GOVERNOR OF ANDHRA PRADESH )

Dr. D. SAMBASIVA RAO,

PRINCIPAL SECRETARY TO GOVERNMENT.

To

The Director, Printing, Stationary & Stores Purchase, A.P., Hyderabad.

The Commissioner & Director of School Education, AP, Hyderabad

The Director, Teacher Eligibility Test, O/o the C&DSE, Hyderabad

The Director of SCERT, Hyderabad

The Director of Government Examinations, Hyderabad

The OSD (Chief Consultant), TET, Hyderabad

The Joint Director (Services),

O/o the Commissioner & Director of School Education, Hyderabad

Copy to:

The Account General, A.P. Hyderabad

The Pay and Accounts Officer, A.P., Hyderabad

The Principal  Secretary to CM

The P.S. to C.S

The P.S to M (School Education)

The P.S. to M (Primary Education)

The P.S. to Principal  Secretary,  School Education.

The P.S. to Principal  Secretary.  Primary Education

S.F / S.C

// Forwarded By Order //

SECTION OFFICER.

ANNEXURE to G.O.Ms.NO.      ,                                                                        School Education (SE:GEN.II) Deptt, dt: 16.04.2011

I) Eligibility criteria for Candidates for appearing at TET

a)    The candidate at the time of applying for TET should be in possession of the minimum qualifications prescribed for a teacher for category of I to V classes (Paper I) and VI to VIII classes (Paper II) separately in NCTE notification New Delhi, 23^rd August 2010.

b)    Candidate seeking appointment for a medium in a school should opt that language of the medium as Language I under TET for Paper I. He should have studied at least up to Class X either in that medium or studied that language as first language at least up to Class X under state syllabus. In respect of CBSE/ICSE the second language of Class X (out of two equivalent languages studied) is also considered as first language as both languages in CBSE/ICSE  Class X have equal weightage  in terms of marks, syllabus, periods in time table etc. The following examples will clarify the doubts on eligibility criteria.

Ex i):         A candidate who studied in Telugu medium in Class X (State syllabus) is eligible to opt for Telugu under Language I of TET Paper I or TET Paper II or for both.

Ex ii):        A candidate who studied in English medium in Class X (State syllabus) with Telugu as first language in Class X is also eligible for Telugu medium teacher post. Hence he is permitted to choose Telugu under Language I of TET Paper I or II or both.

Ex iii):       A candidate who studied in CBSE syllabus, two languages English & Telugu for Class X is also eligible for Telugu medium teacher post because he studied Telugu as one of the two equivalent languages in terms of weightage of marks, content, periods in Time Table etc. Hence he is permitted to choose Telugu under Language I of TET Paper I or II or both.

Ex iv):       A Candidate who studied in English medium in Class X (State Syllabus) with Hindi as I Language is not eligible for Telugu Medium (T.M.) Teacher post (but he is eligible for Hindi Medium teacher post). Hence he can choose Hindi under Language I of TET Paper I or II or both.

Ex v):        A Candidate who studied in Urdu Medium in Class X (State Syllabus) with Urdu as I Language and Telugu as II Language is not eligible for T.M. Teacher post(but he is eligible for Urdu Medium Teacher Post). Hence he is permitted to choose Urdu under Language I of TET Paper I or II or both.

c)    The eligibility criteria from (a) to (b) above are criteria for TET only. But Government shall impose additional qualifications over and above these qualifications, specific to a teacher’s post at the time of notification for TRT.

II) Structure and Content of TET

The structure and content of the TET is given in the following paragraphs. All questions will be Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs), each carrying one mark, with four alternatives out of which one answer will be correct. There will be no negative marking. The examining body should strictly adhere to the structure and content of the TET specified below.

There will be two papers of the TET, Paper-I will be for a person who intends to be a teacher for Classes I to V. Paper-II will be for a person who intends to be a teacher for Classes VI to VIII. A person who intends to be a teacher either for classes I to V or for classes VI to VIII will have to appear in both papers (Paper I and Paper II).

Paper I (for Classes I to V); No. of MCQs – 150;

Duration of examination: two-and-a-half hours

Structure and Content (All Compulsory)

(i)            Child Development and Pedagogy          30 MCQs       30 Marks

(ii)          Language I                                                    30 MCQs       30 Marks

(iii)         Language II (English)                                 30 MCQs       30 Marks

(iv)         Mathematics                                                 30 MCQs       30 Marks

(v)          Environmental Studies                               30 MCQs       30 Marks

TOTAL                        150 MCQs     150 Marks

Note (1): The syllabus designed for Child Development and Pedagogy is based on D.Ed curriculum of the State of Andhra Pradesh.

Note (2): It is reiterated that candidates intending to seek appointment in a particular medium of school (Non-English Medium) should take that language under Language I. In Andhra Pradesh, the following languages are offered under Language I viz., Telugu, Urdu, Hindi, Bengali, Kannnada, Marathi, Oriya, Tamil and Gujarathi. Candidate is to choose one of these 9 languages under Language I. Those candidates would have compulsorily studied in that language either as medium of study or as first language at least up to Class X as stated in the eligibility criteria above.

Note (3): In respect of candidates who studied Class X through English Medium can take under      Language I, the language which he studied as first language  at least upto Class X.

Note (4): In respect of Andhra Pradesh language II shall be English for all candidates irrespective of medium of the school to which they intend to seek employment.

Note (5): The copies of syllabi for Mathematics & Environmental Studies which are designed on the basis of topics of Classes I to V with content raised to Class X level. The test items in Mathematics and Environmental Studies will contain MCQs not only on content but also on Pedagogy. In Mathematics 24 MCQs will be on content and 6 MCQs on pedagogy. Similarly in Environmental Studies 24 MCQs will be on content and 6 MCQs on pedagogy.

Note (6): The syllabi for Language I & II shall be based on proficiency in the language, elements of language, communication and comprehension abilities (standard up to Class X level).

Note (7): 30 MCQs under Language I & II each shall include 6 questions on pedagogy of a language.

Paper II (for classes VI to VIII); No of MCQs – 150;

Duration of examination: two-and-a-half hours

Structure and Content

(i)            Child Development and Pedagogy (Compulsory)30 MCQs    30 Marks

(ii)          Language I (Compulsory)                          30 MCQs       30 Marks

(iii)         Language II (English)                                 30 MCQs       30 Marks

(iv)         (a) For Mathematics and Science teacher: Mathematics and Science – 60 MCQs of 1  mark each

OR

(b) For Social studies teacher : Social Studies – 60 MCQs of 1 mark each

(c) for any other teacher – either iv (a) or iv (b)

Note:   A) The syllabus for Child Development and Pedagogy under Paper II is based on the syllabus of D.Ed / B.Ed curriculum focusing on Educational Psychology of Teaching and Learning in Classes VI and above. The syllabus also focuses on understanding the characteristics, needs and psychology of diverse learners, interaction with learners and the attributes and qualities of a good facilitator of learning.

Note:   B) In Andhra Pradesh, the following languages are offered under Language I viz., Telugu, Urdu, Hindi, Bengali, Kannnada, Marathi, Oriya, Tamil and Gujarathi. Candidate is to choose one of these 9 languages under Language I.

Note:   C) In respect of Andhra Pradesh language II shall be English for all candidates.

Note:   D) For Paper II Science & Mathematics sectors questions will be as follows:

Mathematics             -           30 MCQs (Content 24; Pedagogy 06)

Physical Science     -           14 MCQs (Content 12; Pedagogy 02)

Biological Science   -           16 MCQs (Content 12; Pedagogy 04)

TOTAL                                    -           60 Questions

Note:   E) For Paper II Social Studies portion the syllabus will cover the sectors namely, History,  Geography, Civics and Economics based on topics of Classes VI to VIII with content raised up  to Senior Secondary level (12^th Class).

Note:   F) For Paper II the syllabi for TET of Mathematics & Sciences, Social Studies are based on topics  of Classes VI to VIII with content raised up to Senior Secondary Level (12^th Class).

Note:   G) The syllabi for Language I & II shall be based on proficiency in the language, elements of language, communication and comprehension abilities (standard up to Senior Secondary  Level (12^th Class)).

III) Medium of Question Paper

The question paper shall be bilingual – (i) in 9 language(s) viz. Telugu, Urdu, Hindi, Bengali, Kannada, Marathi, Oriya, Tamil, Gujarathi and in (ii) English language.

The certificate may contain the name and address of the candidate, Registration No. year/month of award of Certificate, marks obtained in each paper, class level of its validity (Class I to V, class VI to VIII or both), and, in case of classes VI to VIII, the subject area (Science and Mathematics, Social Studies) etc. The certificate may be electronically generated with adequate security features. Government may consider utilizing the services of agencies for issuing de-materialized (demat) TET certificates as a security feature to avoid any kind of malpractice.

IV) Frequency of conduct of TET

Every year TET will be conducted 2 times, one in June/July and another in December/January. First TET in the State is proposed to be conducted   by end of the July 2011 (Sunday).

Paper I                       :           2 hours and 30 minutes

Paper II                      :           2 hours and 30 minutes

V) How to Constitute Examination Centres for TET

a)    Any Central Government/State Government/Local Body/Private recognized High School/ Jr. College/ Degree College /P.G. College/COE/ D.Ed College/Engineering College/Polytechnic/ITI can be identified by DEO with the approval of District Collector for constituting an exam centre for TET.

b)    Each centre with good accommodation and furniture is supposed to have a capacity ofOptimum 240, Maximum 300 for allotment of candidates.

c)    The centres in the District will be identified in District Head Quarters and Municipal Towns & Cities and erstwhile taluq head quarters only.

d)    If an institution has good accommodation and furniture, multiple centres up to a limit of 4 centres in that institution can be constituted, and can be designated as ‘A’ centre, ‘B’ centre, ‘C’ centre and ‘D’ centre of same address with separate centre Nos.

VI) TET Cell

It is proposed to constitute a cell urgently with the following staff to man the conduct of TET (The first TET is scheduled to be held by July end 2011.

1)      Director (TET) in the rank of  Director

2)	Joint Director	The salaries will be met from the funds of TET without any financial commitment to the Government
3)	Two consultants
4)	Two Teacher Educators
5)	Out Sourcing Staff like Data entry operators, Attenders etc.	As required

The other office work relating to TET will be taken up with services of required outsourcing staff

Note:   The expenditure of the Outsourcing staff can be met from the sale proceeds of applications without any financial commitment to the Government

VII) Schedule for TET

a) Notification for calling applications for TET

b) Sale of Blank Application and Receipt of

Application from candidates by the DEOs

c) Issue of Hall Tickets

d) Conduct of TET

Above Four things As decided By the  TET committee

Paper I                                               :           2 hours 30 minutes

Paper II                                              :           2 hours 30 minutes

VIII) Role and Responsibilities

Director (TET) is empowered to conduct TET in an effective manner assisted by field functionaries viz. DEOs, RJDSEs etc. He shall take up pre examination, and post examination activities scrupulously as per schedule for every TET. He should formulate a detailed procedure and lay down instructions for conducting of TET. DEO shall be the Officer responsible to implement the conduct of examination in the District under the overall supervision of District Collector.

IX) Legal Disputes

All legal disputes with regard to conduct of TET shall be subject to Jurisdiction of State Government.

Dr. D. SAMBASIVA RAO,

PRINCIPAL SECRETARY TO GOVERNMENT.

REASONING SECTION - Part -I IBPS EXAM - BANK APTITUDE TEST

Latest Updated Exam / Guess Papers - http://syllabus123.blogspot.com/
Bank Exam Paper / Model Paper for Upcoming Exams IBPS
(Institute of Banking Personal Selection Board)

REASONING SECTION (PART - I)

What Type of questions -

Reasoning Based on Logic -
(A)  Argument
Argument is fundamental to all logic.
Posible type -
(i) What is ith inference of this argument ?
(ii) What are the assumptions of this argument ?
(iii) What are the strengthening points of this argument ?
(iv) Whether this argument is weak OR strong ?

Standard ways of arguing -
Argument by example
Argument by Analogy
Casual Argument
Salesman's Argument
Argument Based on Chronology

e.g - Computer was invented many years after radio.. Therefore computer has a technology superior to that of Radio.
The movie "London Paris Newyork ABC " was released two months earlier than "  XYZ".
So the former could not be a copy of latter.
.........
To identify conclusions , You should identify following -
therefore , thus , so, hence , consequently , as a result , it follows that, it can be inferred that, which shows that, which proves that, which means that

If you are UNABLE to find out these, then ask yourself Where can I use / put such words.
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Learn to identify Key words -
all, always, at least, at most, but can be, can not be, consecutive, directly, each, every, exactly,
except, if, immediately, impossible , must be, never, no fewer than, no mre than, none, only, only once, perfectly, possible, certain, sure, probably, same, some, the least, the most, unless, in spite off, despite, because of
-------------------
Visit Regularily to this Blog, We try to give you a lot of examples, practice to tackle bank examinations.
----------------

(B) ASSUMPTIONS
Format of the problem -
1) If only assumption I is implicit
2) If only assumption II is implicit
3) Either assumption I OR assumption II is implicit
(4) Neither of the assumptions is implicit
(5) Both the assumptions are implicit.

Statement - Advertisement - Beware of Cheaters
Assumptions - I. Peiople will listen it.
II. People will not listen it.
Ans.  I ,  If advt. is given, it means people will listen else it is of No use. 
(As I believe)
.....
(i) Always put your eye on such words - Only, Best. Strongest, All, Definitely, Certainly etc.

(ii) Conjunctions -
(a) A (because / as a result of ) B -->> It is assumed that B leads to A
Students result improved after Mr. Anil teaches.
Valid assumption -> Mr. Anil is a good teacher.

(b) A (therefore / hence ) B -->> It is assumed that A leads to B
This Noble prize wins by an Indian, therefore all Indians must be feeling very proud.
Valid assumption->> Geting a prize by fellow countryman makes other citizens proud.


(c) A (even after / in spite of / despite ) B -->> It is asumed that usually A does not occur when B occurs.
India looses Cricket match with Bangladesh even after having good players.
Valid Assumption -> Good players usually sufficient to make victory

(d) not A ( even after / in spite of / despite ) B -->> It is assumed that usually A occurs when B does.
Statement - There was no injury to any person  even after heavy stampede in temple.
Valid assumption- > Heavy stampede usually leads to injury to public.

(iii) Connovative( Slightly indirect) phrases - Some times a person says in indirect way and you may miss to understand.
eg. - "It is true" can be written as  :
(a) It can be claimed with resonable degree of truth that -
(b) It would be correct to say that -
(c) Even the most sceptic of men would agree that...

Similarily -
"It is false " can be written as -
(a) It is baseless to say that....
(b) Nothing could be farther from truth than.....
(c) It would be highly misleading to say that...

Guess Paper Bank Officer Exam for 11th March 2012

Latest Updated Exam / Guess Papers - http://syllabus123.blogspot.com/

Bank Exam Paper / Model Paper for Specialist Computer / IT Officer Scale - I /II
(EXAMINATION to be held on 11th March 2012 )

1. The _____ states that a foreign key must either match a primary key value in another relation or it must be null.
(a) entity integrity rule

2. An applet __________
(c) is a compiled program that usually runs on the client

3. A _____ sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk.
(e) None of these

4. Which error detection method uses one’s complement arithmetic?
(b) Checksum

5. A result of a computer virus can not lead to ___.
(b) Mother Board Crash

6. The network interface card of LAN is related to following layer of OSI Model-
(e) All of these

7. Which of the following does not describe a data warehouse?
(d) Updateable

8. Which of the following is true ?
(a) Logical design is software-dependent

9. A range check _____
(c) determines whether a number is within a specified limit

10. The total set of interlinked hypertext documents worldwide is-
(c) WWW

11. With the object-oriented (OO) approach, an object encapsulates, or_____.a programmer.
(b) hides, the details of an object from

12. Every computer connected to an intranet or extranet must have a distinct_____
(c) IP address

13. A table of bits in which each row represents the distinct values of a key?
(b) Bitmap index

14. The degree of detail that should be incorporated into a database depends on what?
(b) The type of database

15. The ___ converts digital signals to analog signals for the purpose of transmitting data over telephone lines.

(a) Modem

16. Before a package can be used in a java program it must be___.
(c) imported

17. Choose the correct way to indicate that a line in a C++ program is a comment line, that is, a line the will not be executed as an instruction___.
(b) begin the line with double slashes (/ /)

18. Programming language built into user programs such as Word and Excel are known as____
(c) object-oriented languages

19. Firewalls are used to protect against___.
(a) Unauthorized Attacks

20. This is a standard way for a Web server to pass a Web user’s request to an application program and to receive data back to forward to the user-
(e) Common gateway interface

21. Three SQL, DDL, CREATE commands are__.
(d) Schema, Table and View

22. Data are ________ in client/server computing.
(c) sent only upon the client’s request

23. Which of the following will not eliminates the ambiguities of a null value?
(d) Define supertypes

24. The____directory is mandatory for every disk.
(a) Root

25. This is a group of servers that share work and may be able to back each other up if one server fails.
(b) Cluster

Bank Exam Paper / Model Paper for Specialist Computer / IT Officer Scale - I /II (EXAM to be held on 11th March 2012 )

Latest Updated Exam / Guess Papers - http://syllabus123.blogspot.com/Bank Exam Paper / Model Paper for Specialist  Computer / IT Officer Scale - I /II
(EXAMINATION to be held on 11th March 2012 )


1. The ________ states that a foreign key must either match a primary key value in another relation or it must be null.

(a) entity integrity rule

(b) referential integrity constraint

(c) action assertion

(d) composite attribute

(e) None of these

2. An applet ________

(a) is an interpreted program that runs on the client

(b) tracks the number of visitors to a Website

(c) is a compiled program that usually runs on the client

(d) collects data from visitors to a Website

(e) None of these


3. A ________ sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk.

(a) system virus

(b) Trojan horse virus

(c) file virus

(d) macro virus

(e) None of these

4. Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic?

(a) Simply parity check

(b) Checksum

(c) Two-dimensional parity check

(d) CRC

(e) None of these

5. A result of a computer virus can NOT lead to ________ .

(a) Disk Crash

(b) Mother Board Crash

(c) Corruption of program

(d) Deletion of files

(e) None of these

6. The network interface card of LAN is related to following layer of OSI Model

(a) Transport

(b) Network

(c) Data Link

(d) Physical

(e) All of these

7. Which of the following does NOT describe a data warehouse?

(a) Subject-oriented

(b) Integrated

(c) Time-variant

(d) Updateable

(e) None of these

8. Which of the following is TRUE ?

(a) Logical design is software-dependent

(b) In a distributed database, database is stored in one physical location

(c) Conceptual design translates the logical design into internal model

(d) Logical design is software independent

(e) None of these

9. A range check ________

(a) ensures that only the correct data type is entered into a field

(b) verifies that all required data is present

(c) determines whether a number is within a specified limit

(d) tests if the data in two or more associated fields is logical

(e) None of these

10. The total set of interlinked hypertext documents worldwide is-

(a) HTTP

(b) Browser

(c) WWW

(d) B2B

(e) None of these

11. With the object-oriented (OO) approach, an object encapsulates, or ________ .a programmer.

(a) carries out, the details of an object for

(b) hides, the details of an object from

(c) reveals, the details of an object to

(d) extends, the details of an object beyond

(e) None of these

12. Every computer connected to an intranet or extranet must have a distinct ________

(a) firewall

(b) proxy server

(c) IP address

(d) domain name

(e) None of these

13. A table of bits in which each row represents the distinct values of a key?

(a) Join index

(b) Bitmap index

(c) B + Tree

(d) Hierarchical index

(e) None of these

14. The degree of detail that should be incorporated into a database depends on what?

(a) Data integrity

(b) The type of database

(c) The user's perspective

(d) The business practices and policies

(e) None of these

15. The ________ converts digital signals to analog signals for the purpose of transmitting data over telephone lines.

(a) Modem

(b) Router

(c) Gateway

(d) Bridge

(e) All of these

16. Before a package can be used in a java program it must be ________ .

(a) executed

(b) referenced

(c) imported

(d) declared

(e) None of these

17. Choose the correct way to indicate that a line in a C++ program is a comment line, that is, a line the will not be executed as an instruction ________ .

(a) begin the line with a # sign

(b) begin the line with double slashes (/ /)

(c) begin and end the line with double hyphens (- _ -)

(d) indent the line

(e) None of these

18. Programming language built into user programs such as Word and Excel are known as ________

(a) 4GLs

(b) macro languages

(c) object-oriented languages

(d) visual programming languages

(e) None of these

19. Firewalls are used to protect against ________ .

(a) Unauthorized Attacks

(b) Virus Attacks

(c) Data Driven Attacks

(d) Fire Attacks

(e) All of these

20. This is a standard way for a Web server to pass a Web user's request to an application program and to receive data back to forward to the user-

(a) Interrupt request

(b) Forward DNS lookup

(c) Data-Link layer

(d) File Transfer Protocol

(e) Common gateway interface

21. Three SQL, DDL, CREATE commands are ________ .

(a) Schema, Base and Table

(b) Base, Table and Schema

(c) Key, Base and Table

(d) Schema, Table and View

(e) None of these

22. Data are ________ in client/server computing.

(a) never sent to the client machine

(b) sent in very large sections to save processing time

(c) sent only upon the client's request

(d) sent in complete copies for the client to filter and sort

(e) sent from the client to the server for processing

23. Which of the following will NOT eliminates the ambiguities of a null value?

(a) Define the attribute as required

(b) Define subtypes

(c) Define each attribute as having an initial value that is recognized as blank

(d) Define supertypes

(e) None of these

24. The ________ directory is mandatory for every disk.

(a) Root

(b) Base

(c) Sub

(d) Case

(e) None of these

25. This is a group of servers that share work and may be able to back each other up if one server fails.

(a) Channel bank

(b) Cluster

(c) Tiger team

(d) Serverless backup

(e) Logical unit

ANSWERS

1. (a), 2. (c), 3. (e), 4. (b), 5. (b)
6. (e), 7. (d), 8. (a), 9. (c), 10. (a)
11. (b), 12. (c), 13. (b), 14. (b), 15. (a)
16. (c), 17. (b), 18. (d), 19. (a), 20. (e)
21. (d), 22. (c), 23. (d), 24. (c), 25. (b)

Bank IT Officer (Specialist Oficer ) - Computer Awarenes Exam Paper

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Bank IT Officer (Specialist Oficer ) - Computer Awarenes Exam Paper

Following are the questions and correct answers of those questions:

1. The _____ states that a foreign key must either match a primary key value in another relation or it must be null.
(a) entity integrity rule

2. An applet __________
(c) is a compiled program that usually runs on the client

3. A _____ sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk.
(e) None of these

4. Which error detection method uses one’s complement arithmetic?
(b) Checksum

5. A result of a computer virus can not lead to ___.
(b) Mother Board Crash

6. The network interface card of LAN is related to following layer of OSI Model-
(e) All of these

7. Which of the following does not describe a data warehouse?
(d) Updateable

8. Which of the following is true ?
(a) Logical design is software-dependent

9. A range check _____
(c) determines whether a number is within a specified limit

10. The total set of interlinked hypertext documents worldwide is-
(c) WWW

11. With the object-oriented (OO) approach, an object encapsulates, or_____.a programmer.
(b) hides, the details of an object from

12. Every computer connected to an intranet or extranet must have a distinct_____
(c) IP address

13. A table of bits in which each row represents the distinct values of a key?
(b) Bitmap index

14. The degree of detail that should be incorporated into a database depends on what?
(b) The type of database

15. The ___ converts digital signals to analog signals for the purpose of transmitting data over telephone lines.

(a) Modem

16. Before a package can be used in a java program it must be___.
(c) imported

17. Choose the correct way to indicate that a line in a C++ program is a comment line, that is, a line the will not be executed as an instruction___.
(b) begin the line with double slashes (/ /)

18. Programming language built into user programs such as Word and Excel are known as____
(c) object-oriented languages

19. Firewalls are used to protect against___.
(a) Unauthorized Attacks

20. This is a standard way for a Web server to pass a Web user’s request to an application program and to receive data back to forward to the user-
(e) Common gateway interface

21. Three SQL, DDL, CREATE commands are__.
(d) Schema, Table and View

22. Data are ________ in client/server computing.
(c) sent only upon the client’s request

23. Which of the following will not eliminates the ambiguities of a null value?
(d) Define supertypes

24. The____directory is mandatory for every disk.
(a) Root

25. This is a group of servers that share work and may be able to back each other up if one server fails.
(b) Cluster

Bank IT Officer (Specialist Oficer ) - Computer Awarenes Exam Paper

Latest Updated Exam / Guess Papers - http://syllabus123.blogspot.com/

Bank IT Officer (Specialist Oficer ) - Computer Awarenes Exam Paper

1. The ________ states that a foreign key must either match a primary key value in another relation or it must be null.

(a) entity integrity rule

(b) referential integrity constraint

(c) action assertion

(d) composite attribute

(e) None of these

2. An applet ________

(a) is an interpreted program that runs on the client

(b) tracks the number of visitors to a Website

(c) is a compiled program that usually runs on the client

(d) collects data from visitors to a Website

(e) None of these


3. A ________ sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk.

(a) system virus

(b) Trojan horse virus

(c) file virus

(d) macro virus

(e) None of these

4. Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic?

(a) Simply parity check

(b) Checksum

(c) Two-dimensional parity check

(d) CRC

(e) None of these

5. A result of a computer virus can NOT lead to ________ .

(a) Disk Crash

(b) Mother Board Crash

(c) Corruption of program

(d) Deletion of files

(e) None of these

6. The network interface card of LAN is related to following layer of OSI Model

(a) Transport

(b) Network

(c) Data Link

(d) Physical

(e) All of these

7. Which of the following does NOT describe a data warehouse?

(a) Subject-oriented

(b) Integrated

(c) Time-variant

(d) Updateable

(e) None of these

8. Which of the following is TRUE ?

(a) Logical design is software-dependent

(b) In a distributed database, database is stored in one physical location

(c) Conceptual design translates the logical design into internal model

(d) Logical design is software independent

(e) None of these

9. A range check ________

(a) ensures that only the correct data type is entered into a field

(b) verifies that all required data is present

(c) determines whether a number is within a specified limit

(d) tests if the data in two or more associated fields is logical

(e) None of these

10. The total set of interlinked hypertext documents worldwide is-

(a) HTTP

(b) Browser

(c) WWW

(d) B2B

(e) None of these

11. With the object-oriented (OO) approach, an object encapsulates, or ________ .a programmer.

(a) carries out, the details of an object for

(b) hides, the details of an object from

(c) reveals, the details of an object to

(d) extends, the details of an object beyond

(e) None of these

12. Every computer connected to an intranet or extranet must have a distinct ________

(a) firewall

(b) proxy server

(c) IP address

(d) domain name

(e) None of these

13. A table of bits in which each row represents the distinct values of a key?

(a) Join index

(b) Bitmap index

(c) B + Tree

(d) Hierarchical index

(e) None of these

14. The degree of detail that should be incorporated into a database depends on what?

(a) Data integrity

(b) The type of database

(c) The user's perspective

(d) The business practices and policies

(e) None of these

15. The ________ converts digital signals to analog signals for the purpose of transmitting data over telephone lines.

(a) Modem

(b) Router

(c) Gateway

(d) Bridge

(e) All of these

16. Before a package can be used in a java program it must be ________ .

(a) executed

(b) referenced

(c) imported

(d) declared

(e) None of these

17. Choose the correct way to indicate that a line in a C++ program is a comment line, that is, a line the will not be executed as an instruction ________ .

(a) begin the line with a # sign

(b) begin the line with double slashes (/ /)

(c) begin and end the line with double hyphens (- _ -)

(d) indent the line

(e) None of these

18. Programming language built into user programs such as Word and Excel are known as ________

(a) 4GLs

(b) macro languages

(c) object-oriented languages

(d) visual programming languages

(e) None of these

19. Firewalls are used to protect against ________ .

(a) Unauthorized Attacks

(b) Virus Attacks

(c) Data Driven Attacks

(d) Fire Attacks

(e) All of these

20. This is a standard way for a Web server to pass a Web user's request to an application program and to receive data back to forward to the user-

(a) Interrupt request

(b) Forward DNS lookup

(c) Data-Link layer

(d) File Transfer Protocol

(e) Common gateway interface

21. Three SQL, DDL, CREATE commands are ________ .

(a) Schema, Base and Table

(b) Base, Table and Schema

(c) Key, Base and Table

(d) Schema, Table and View

(e) None of these

22. Data are ________ in client/server computing.

(a) never sent to the client machine

(b) sent in very large sections to save processing time

(c) sent only upon the client's request

(d) sent in complete copies for the client to filter and sort

(e) sent from the client to the server for processing

23. Which of the following will NOT eliminates the ambiguities of a null value?

(a) Define the attribute as required

(b) Define subtypes

(c) Define each attribute as having an initial value that is recognized as blank

(d) Define supertypes

(e) None of these

24. The ________ directory is mandatory for every disk.

(a) Root

(b) Base

(c) Sub

(d) Case

(e) None of these

25. This is a group of servers that share work and may be able to back each other up if one server fails.

(a) Channel bank

(b) Cluster

(c) Tiger team

(d) Serverless backup

(e) Logical unit

ANSWERS

1. (a), 2. (c), 3. (e), 4. (b), 5. (b)
6. (e), 7. (d), 8. (a), 9. (c), 10. (a)
11. (b), 12. (c), 13. (b), 14. (b), 15. (a)
16. (c), 17. (b), 18. (d), 19. (a), 20. (e)
21. (d), 22. (c), 23. (d), 24. (c), 25. (b)

Forthcoming Competitive Exams : 2012

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Forthcoming Competitive Exams : 2012

February

● Army Religious Teacher Exam. (February 26)

● Madhya Pradesh Assistant Grade 3/Lower Division Clerk/Registration Clerk Combined Selection Exam., 2011 (February 26)

March
● Jharkhand Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (March 4)
● Madhya Pradesh Excellence School Entrance Test for Class IX (March 4)
● Surguja Kshetriya Gramin Bank Clerk-cum-Cashier (Office-Assistant) Exam. (March 4)
● Uttar Bihar Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (March 4)
● Common Written Exam. (CWE) for Specialist Officers (March 11)
● State Bank of India Clerical Cadre Exam. for SC/ST/OBC (March 18)
● Uttar Bihar Gramin Bank Officers Exam. (March 18)
● Himachal Gramin Bank Officers Scale I &Scale II Exam. (March 18)
● Pragathi Gramin Bank Officer Junior Management Scale I Exam. (March 18)
● M.P. MBA&MCA Courses Entrance, Exam. 2012 (March 18)
● Himachal Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (March 25)
April
● C.B.S.E. All India Pre-Medical and Pre-Dental (Pre.) Exam., 2012 (April 1)
● SSC Junior Engineer (Civil and Electrical) Exam., 2012 (April 8)
● Chhattisgarh Subedar/Sub-Inspector Cadre/Platoon Commander Pre. Exam., 2011 (April 8)
● Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd. Administrative Officers Exam. (April 8)
● U.P.S.C. National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Exam. (I), 2012 (April 15)
● M. P. Forest Guard Selection Test, 2012 (April 15) (Online Closing Date : 23 February, 2012)
● Recruitment of Constables (GD) and Rifleman (GD) in CAPFs, 2012 (BSF/CRPF/CISF/SSB/ITBPF/Assam/Rifles) (April 22)
● U.P. B.Ed. Joint Entrance Exam., 2012-13 (April 23) (Closing Date : 10 March, 2012)
● All India Engineering/Architecture Entrance Exam., 2012 (April 29)

May
● Ph. D. Common Eligibility Test (Held by Ram Manohar Lohia Avadh Visvavidyalaya) (April 29) (Closing Date : 20 March, 2012)
● Chhattisgarh Public Service Commission State Services Exam., 2011 (May 6)
● U.P. Polytechnic Joint Entrance Exam., 2012) (May 6-8)
● C.B.S.E. All India Pre-Medical and Pre-Dental (Main) Exam., 2012 (May 13)
● Common Law Admission Test (CLAT), 2012 (May 13) (Closing Date : 31 March, 2012)
● Chhattisgarh Subedar/Sub-Inspector/Platoon Commander Main Exam., 2011 (May 13-14)
● SSC Sub-Inspector in CPOs and Intelligence Officer in NCB Exam., 2012 (May 27) (Closing Date : 16 March, 2012)

July
● SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-I) Exam., 2012 (July 1 & 8) (Closing Date : 20 April, 2012)
● SSC Stenographers Grade ‘C’&‘D’ Exam., 2012 (July 29) (Closing Date : 25 May, 2012)

September
● SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-II) Exam., 2012 (September 15-16)

October
● SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) for Data Entry Operator, LDC etc. Exam., 2012 (October 21) (Closing Date : 10 August, 2012)

November
● SSC Junior Translators (CSOLS)/Junior Hindi Translator Exam., 2012 (November 18) (Closing Date : 5 October, 2012)

Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti - Mode of Selection

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Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti - Mode of Selection

1. The Written Examination for the recruitment to the above mentioned posts is likely to be held at following centres (code of the center are mentioned against the name of the city (Refer Column No. 05 Of The Application).

Examination City	City Code	Examination City	City Code
Ahmedabad	11	Jaipur	22
Bangalore	12	Jammu	23
Bhopal	13	Kolkata	24
Bhubaneshwer	14	Lucknow	25
Chandigarh	15	Mumbai / Pune	26
Chennai	16	Patna	27
Dehradun	17	Raipur	28
Delhi	18	Ranchi	29
Guwahati	19	Shimla	30
Hyderabad	20	Srinagar	31
Imphal	21	Thiruvanthapuram	32

2. Blind candidates will be provided with the assistance of guides at the respective Examination Centre who will assist them in the examination process. Such candidate must write clearly about their disability in the application form for making necessary arrangements. An extra time of 30 minutes in each of the paper will be given to such candidates.

3. Candidates admitted to the examination will be sent an Admit Card permitting them to take examination. No candidate will be permitted to appear in the examination hall without the Admit Card alongwith date sheet and specific instructions.

4. The Written test will consist of three papers for both PGT and TGT as under:-

	Post Graduate Teachers
Paper	Subject	Marks / Duration
Paper-I General Paper	Common Paper For All Posts Of PGTs: Objective type multiple choice questions on General English, General Awareness, General Intelligence & Reasoning, Numerical Ability and Teaching Aptitude.	60 Marks / 2 hrs.
Paper-II (Language Proficiency)	Objective type Hindi / English Language proficiency test.	40 marks / 1 hr.
Paper-III Subject Paper	Descriptive questions in the concerned subject. The difficulty level of the question paper will be of Post Graduation level. Paper III of only those candidates will be evaluated who have secured minimum cut-off marks in Paper-I (General Paper) as well as in Paper-II (Language Proficiency).	80 Marks / 2 hrs.
Trained Graduate Teachers & Misc. Categories
Paper-I General Paper	Common Paper For All Posts Of Tgts Including Misc. CategoriesObjective type multiple choice questions on General English, General Awareness, General Intelligence & Reasoning, Numerical Ability and Teaching Aptitude.	60 Marks/ 2 hrs.
Paper-II(Language Proficiency-subject test)	Objective type questions in concerned subject with multiple choice answers. For the post of TGT in Hindi and English all the questions will be in Hindi and English respectively, on the subject matter. For all other parts, the questions will be provided in one of the 13 Regional Languages, as mentioned in Para-5 below. Candidate will have to answer these questions in the language which he / she opts. It is, therefore, compulsory that candidates must fill up the option of Regional Language in which they would like to appear for the Exam in Col. 15 of the application form. Difficulty level of question paper will be of Graduation Level.	40 Marks / 1 hr.
Paper-III(Subject Paper)	Descriptive Questions in concerned subject. The medium of examination will be English / Hindi. Difficulty level will be of Graduation level. A candidate appearing for the examination will have to answer the question paper either in Hindi or English. Paper-III of only those candidates will be evaluated who have secured minimum cut-off marks in Paper-I (General Paper) as well as in Paper-II (Language Proficiency-subject test).	80 Marks / 2 hrs.

Hottest Current Event for Exams - Bank, Railway, Public Service Commissions, Civil Service

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Hottest Current Event for Exams - Bank, Railway, Public Service Commissions, Civil Service

North Korean leader Kim Jong Il dead -

North Korean leader Kim Jong Il is dead, North Korean state TV said Monday.Kim, 69, died Saturday, state TV said.The son of Kim Il Song, the founder of the communist nation, Kim Jong Il had been in power since 1994 when his father died of a heart attack at age 82.

See More Details - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kim_Jong-il

3i infotech Placement Papers

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3i infotech Placement Papers

1)In june a baseball team that played 60 games had won 30% of its game played. After a phenomenal winning streak this team raised its average to 50% .How many games must the team have won in a row to attain this average?

A. 12 B. 20 C. 24 D. 30 (Ans. C)

2.M men agree to purchase a gift for Rs. D. If three men drop out how much more will each have to contribute towards the purchase of the gift/

A. D/(M-3) B. MD/3 C. M/(D-3) D. 3D/(M2-3M) (Ans. D)

3. A company contracts to paint 3 houses. Mr.Brown can paint a house in 6 days while Mr.Black would take 8 days and Mr.Blue 12 days. After 8 days Mr.Brown goes on vacation and Mr. Black begins to work for a period of 6 days. How many days will it take Mr.Blue to complete the contract?

A. 7 B. 8 C. 11 D. 12 (Ans.C)

4.2 hours after a freight train leaves Delhi a passenger train leaves the same station travelling in the same direction at an average speed of 16 km/hr. After travelling 4 hrs the passenger train overtakes the freight train. The average speed of the freight train was?

A. 30 B. 40 C.58 D. 60 (Ans. B)

5.If 9x-3y=12 and 3x-5y=7 then 6x-2y = ?

A.-5 B. 4 C. 2 D. 8 (Ans. D)

6.There are 5 red shoe, 4 green shoes. If one draw randomly a shoe what is the probability of getting a red shoe
(Ans 5c1/ 9c1)

7.What is the selling price of a car? If the cost of the car is Rs.60 and a profit of 10% over selling price is earned
 (Ans: Rs 66/-)

8.1/3 of girls , 1/2 of boys go to canteen .What factor and total number of classmates go to canteen.

9.The price of a product is reduced by 30% . By what percentage should it be increased to make it 100%
 (Ans: 42.857%)

10.There is a square of side 6cm . A circle is inscribed inside the square. Find the ratio of the area of circle to square.
(Ans. 11/14 )

11.There are two candles of equal lengths and of different thickness. The thicker one lasts of six hours. The thinner 2 hours less than the thicker one. Ramesh lights the two candles at the same time. When he went to bed he saw the thicker one is twice the length of the thinner one. How long ago did Ramesh light the two candles .

Ans: 3 hours.

12.If M/N = 6/5,then 3M+2N = ?

13.If p/q = 5/4 , then 2p+q= ?

14.If PQRST is a parallelogram what it the ratio of triangle PQS & parallelogram PQRST .

 (Ans: 1:2 )

15.The cost of an item is Rs 12.60. If the profit is 10% over selling price what is the selling price?

(Ans: Rs 13.86/- )

16.There are 6 red shoes & 4 green shoes . If two of red shoes are drawn what is the probability of getting red shoes
(Ans: 6c2/10c2)

17.To 15 lts of water containing 20% alcohol, we add 5 lts of pure water. What is % alcohol.
(Ans : 15% )

18.A worker is paid Rs.20/- for a full days work. He works 1,1/3,2/3,1/8.3/4 days in a week. What is the total amount paid for that worker ?
 (Ans : 57.50 )

19.If the value of x lies between 0 & 1 which of the following is the largest?

(a) x b) x2 (c) ?x (d) 1/x (Ans : (d) )

20.If the total distance of a journey is 120 km .If one goes by 60 kmph and comes back at 40kmph what is the average speed during the journey?
Ans: 48kmph

21.A school has 30% students from Maharashtra .Out of these 20% are Bombey students. Find the total percentage of Bombay?
 (Ans: 6%)

22.An equilateral triangle of sides 3 inch each is given. How many equilateral triangles of side 1 inch can be formed from it?
 (Ans: 9)

23.If A/B = 3/5,then 15A = ?
(Ans : 9B)

24.Each side of a rectangle is increased by 100% .By what percentage does the area increase?
 (Ans : 300%)

25.Perimeter of the back wheel = 9 feet, front wheel = 7 feet on a certain distance, the front wheel gets 10 revolutions more than the back wheel .What is the distance?
Ans : 315 feet

26.Perimeter of front wheel =30, back wheel = 20. If front wheel revolves 240 times. How many revolutions will the back wheel take?
Ans: 360 times

27.20% of a 6 litre solution and 60% of 4 litre solution are mixed. What percentage of the mixture of solution

(Ans: 36%)

28.City A's population is 68000, decreasing at a rate of 80 people per year. City B having population 42000 is increasing at a rate of 120 people per year. In how many years both the cities will have same population?
 (Ans: 130 years)

29.Two cars are 15 kms apart. One is turning at a speed of 50kmph and the other at 40kmph . How much time will it take for the two cars to meet?
 (Ans: 3/2 hours)

30.A person wants to buy 3 paise and 5 paise stamps costing exactly one rupee. If he buys which of the following number of stamps he won't able to buy 3 paise stamps.
Ans: 9

31.There are 12 boys and 15 girls, How many different dancing groups can be formed with 2 boys and 3 girls.

32.Which of the following fractions is less than 1/3
(a) 22/62 (b) 15/46 (c) 2/3 (d) 1 (Ans: (b))

33.There are two circles, one circle is inscribed and another circle is circumscribed over a square. What is the ratio of area of inner to outer circle?
 Ans: 1 : 2

34.Three types of tea the a,b,c costs Rs. 95/kg,100/kg and70/kg respectively.How many kgs of each should be blended to produce 100 kg of mixture worth Rs.90/kg, given that the quntities of band c are equal

a)70,15,15 b)50,25,25 c)60,20,20 d)40,30,30 (Ans. (b))

35.In a class, except 18 all are above 50 years.15 are below 50 years of age. How many people are there

(a) 30 (b) 33 (c) 36 (d) none of these. (Ans. (d))

36.If a boat is moving in upstream with velocity of 14 km/hr and goes downstream with a velocity of 40 km/hr, then what is the speed of the stream ?

(a) 13 km/hr (b) 26 km/hr (c) 34 km/hr (d) none of these (Ans. A)

37.Find the value of ( 0.75 * 0.75 * 0.75 - 0.001 ) / ( 0.75 * 0.75 - 0.075 + 0.01)

(a) 0.845 (b) 1.908 (c) 2.312 (d) 0.001 (Ans. A)

38.A can have a piece of work done in 8 days, B can work three times faster than the A, C can work five times faster than A. How many days will they take to do the work together ?

(a) 3 days (b) 8/9 days (c) 4 days (d) can't say (Ans. B)

39.A car travels a certain distance taking 7 hrs in forward journey, during the return journey increased speed 12km/hr takes the times 5 hrs.What is the distancetravelled

(a) 210 kms (b) 30 kms (c) 20 kms (c) none of these (Ans. B)

40.Instead of multiplying a number by 7, the number is divided by 7. What is the percentage of error obtained ?

41.Find (7x + 4y ) / (x-2y) if x/2y = 3/2 ?

(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 7 (d) data insufficient (Ans. C)

42.A man buys 12 lts of liquid which contains 20% of the liquid and the rest is water. He then mixes it with 10 lts of another mixture with 30% of liquid.What is the % of water in the new mixture?

43.If a man buys 1 lt of milk for Rs.12 and mixes it with 20% water and sells it for Rs.15, then what is the percentage of gain?

44.Pipe A can fill a tank in 30 mins and Pipe B can fill it in 28 mins.If 3/4th of the tank is filled by Pipe B alone and both are opened, how much time is required by both the pipes to fill the tank completely ?

45.If on an item a company gives 25% discount, they earn 25% profit. If they now give 10% discount then what is the profit percentage.

(a) 40% (b) 55% (c) 35% (d) 30% (Ans. D)

46.A certain number of men can finish a piece of work in 10 days. If however there were 10 men less it will take 10 days more for the work to be finished. How many men were there originally?

(a) 110 men (b) 130 men (c) 100 men (d) none of these (Ans. A)

47.In simple interest what sum amounts of Rs.1120/- in 4 years and Rs.1200/- in 5 years ?

(a) Rs. 500 (b) Rs. 600 (c) Rs. 800 (d) Rs. 900 (Ans. C)

48.If a sum of money compound annually amounts of thrice itself in 3 years. In how many years will it become 9 times itself.

(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 10 (d) 12 (Ans A)

49.Two trains move in the same direction at 50 kmph and 32 kmph respectively. A man in the slower train observes the 15 seconds elapse before the faster train completely passes by him.
50.What is the length of faster train ?

(a) 100m (b) 75m (c) 120m (d) 50m (Ans B)

51.How many mashes are there in 1 squrare meter of wire gauge if each mesh
is 8mm long and 5mm wide ?

(a) 2500 (b) 25000 (c) 250 (d) 250000 (Ans B)

52.x% of y is y% of ?

(a) x/y (b) 2y (c) x (d) can't be determined Ans. C

53.The price of sugar increases by 20%, by what % should a housewife reduce the consumption of sugar so that expenditure on sugar can be same as before ?

(a) 15% (b) 16.66% (c) 12% (d) 9% (Ans B)

54.A man spends half of his salary on household expenses, 1/4th for rent, 1/5th for travel expenses, the man deposits the rest in a bank. If his monthly deposits in the bank amount 50, what is his monthly salary ?

(a) Rs.500 (b) Rs.1500 (c) Rs.1000 (d) Rs. 900 (Ans C)

55.The population of a city increases @ 4% p.a. There is an additional annual increase of 4% of the population due to the influx of job seekers, find the % increase in population after 2 years ?

56.The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a school is 3:2 Out of these 10% the boys and 25% of girls are scholarship holders. % of students who are not scholarship holders.?

57.15 men take 21 days of 8 hrs. each to do a piece of work. How many days of 6 hrs. each would it take for 21 women if 3 women do as much work as 2 men?

(a) 30 (b) 20 (c) 19 (d) 29 (Ans. A)

58.A cylinder is 6 cms in diameter and 6 cms in height. If spheres of the same size are made from the material obtained, what is the diameter of each sphere?

(a) 5 cms (b) 2 cms (c) 3 cms (d) 4 cms (Ans C)

59.A rectangular plank (2)1/2 meters wide can be placed so that it is on either side of the diagonal of a square shown below.(Figure is not available)What is the area of the plank?
 ( Ans :7*(2)1/2 )

60.What is the smallest number by which 2880 must be divided in order to make it into a perfect square ?

(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 (Ans. C)

61.A father is 30 years older than his son however he will be only thrice as old as the son after 5 years what is father's present age ?

(a) 40 yrs (b) 30 yrs (c) 50 yrs (d) none of these (Ans. A)

62.An article sold at a profit of 20% if both the cost price and selling price would be Rs.20/- the profit would be 10% more. What is the cost price of that article?

63.If an item costs Rs.3 in '99 and Rs.203 in '00.What is the % increase in price?

(a) 200/3 % (b) 200/6 % (c) 100% (d) none of these (Ans. A)

64.5 men or 8 women do equal amount of work in a day. a job requires 3 men and 5 women to finish the job in 10 days how many woman are required to finish the job in 14 days.

a) 10 b) 7 c) 6 d) 12 (Ans 7)

65.A simple interest amount of rs 5000 for six month is rs 200. what is the anual rate of interest?

a) 10% b) 6% c) 8% d) 9% (Ans 8%)

66.In objective test a correct ans score 4 marks and on a wrong ans 2 marks are ---. a student score 480 marks from 150 question. how many ans were correct?

a) 120 b) 130 c) 110 d) 150 (Ans130)

67.An artical sold at amount of 50% the net sale price is rs 425 .what is the list price of the artical?

a) 500 b) 488 c) 480 d) 510 (Ans 500)

68.A man leaves office daily at 7pm A driver with car comes from his home to pick him from office and bring back home.One day he gets free at 5:30 and instead of waiting for driver he starts walking towards home. In the way he meets the car and returns home on car He reaches home 20 minutes earlier than usual. In how much time does the man reach home usually?? (Ans. 1hr 20min)

69.A works thrice as much as B. If A takes 60 days less than B to do a work then find the number of days it would take to complete the work if both work together?
Ans. 22?days

70.How many 1's are there in the binary form of 8*1024 + 3*64 + 3
Ans. 4

71.In a digital circuit which was to implement (A B) + (A)XOR(B), the designer implements (A B) (A)XOR(B) What is the probability of error in it ?

72.A boy has Rs 2. He wins or loses Re 1 at a time If he wins he gets Re 1 and if he loses the game he loses Re 1.He can loose only 5 times. He is out of the game if he earns Rs 5.Find the number of ways in which this is possible?
 (Ans. 16)

73.If there are 1024*1280 pixels on a screen and each pixel can have around 16 million colors. Find the memory required for this?
 (Ans. 4MB)

74.On a particular day A and B decide that they would either speak the truth or will lie. C asks A whether he is speaking truth or lying? He answers and B listens to what he said. C then asks B what A has said B says "A says that he is a liar" What is B speaking ?
(a) Truth (b) Lie (c) Truth when A lies (d) Cannot be determined
Ans. (b)
75.In a class composed of x girls and y boys what part of the class is composed of girls

A. y/(x + y)
B. x/xy
C. x/(x + y)
D. y/xy
(Ans.C)