Thursday, April 5, 2012

Guidelines For conducting Teacher Eligibility Test (TET)

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Guidelines For conducting Teacher Eligibility Test (TET)




Guidelines for conducting Teacher Eligibility Test (TET)



Background and Rationale

The implementation of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009 requires the recruitment of a large number of teachers across the country in a time bound manner. Inspite of the enormity of the task, it is desirable to ensure that quality requirement for recruitment of teachers are not diluted at any cost. It is thereforenecessary to ensure that persons recruited as teachers possess the essential aptitude and ability to meet the challenges of teaching at the primary and upper primary level.
2 In accordance with the provisions of sub-section (1) of section 23 of the Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, the National Council forTeacher Education (NCTE) has laid down the minimum qualifications for a person to beeligible for appointment as a teacher in class I to VIII, vide its Notification dated August 23, 2010. A copy of the Notification is attached at Annexure 1. One of the essentialqualifications for a person to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in any of the schools referred to in clause (n) of section 2 of the RTE Act is that he/she should pass the Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) which will be conducted by the appropriate Government.
3 The rationale for including the TET as a minimum qualification for a person to beeligible for appointment as a teacher is as under:
i. It would bring national standards and benchmark of teacher quality in therecruitment process;
ii. It would induce teacher education institutions and students from theseinstitutions to further improve their performance standards;
iii. It would send a positive signal to all stakeholders that the Government laysspecial emphasis on teacher quality
4 The TET examination may be conducted by a suitable professional bodydesignated by the appropriate Government for the purpose. It will be conducted inaccordance with the Guidelines hereunder.

Eligibility
5 The following persons shall be eligible for appearing in the TET:
i. A person who has acquired the academic and professional qualificationsspecified in the NCTE Notification dated 23 rd August 2010.
ii. A person who is pursuing any of the teacher education courses (recognized bythe NCTE or the RCI, as the case may be) specified in the NCTE Notification dated 23 rd August 2010.
iii. The eligibility condition for appearing in TET may be relaxed in respect of a 3 State/UT which has been granted relaxation under sub-section (2) of section 23 of the RTE Act. The relaxation will be specified in the Notification issued by theCentral Government under that sub-section.
Structure and Content of TET
6 The structure and content of the TET is given in the following paragraphs. Allquestions will be Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs), each carrying one mark, with fouralternatives out of which one answer will be correct. There will be no negative marking.The examining body should strictly adhere to the structure and content of the TETspecified below.
7 There will be two papers of the TET. Paper I will be for a person who intends to be a teacher for classes I to V. Paper II will be for a person who intends to be a teacher for classes VI to VIII. A person who intends to be a teacher either for classes I to V or forclasses VI to VIII will have to appear in both papers (Paper I and Paper II).
Paper I (for classes I to V); No. of MCQs – 150;
Duration of examination: one-and-a-half hours
Structure and Content (All Compulsory)
I
Child Development and Pedagogy
30 Multipul Choice Questions
30 Marks
Ii
Language I
30 Multipul Choice Questions
30 Marks
Iii
Language II
30 Multipul Choice Questions
30 Marks
Iv
Mathematics
30 Multipul Choice Questions
30 Marks
v
Environmental studies
30 Multipul Choice Questions
30 Marks



Nature and standard of questions
While designing and preparing the questions for Paper I, the examining body shall take the following factors into consideration:
• The test items on Child Development and Pedagogy will focus on educationalpsychology of teaching and learning relevant to the age group of 6-11 years. They will focus on understanding the characteristics and needs of diverse learners, interaction with learners and the attributes and qualities of a good facilitator of learning.
• The Test items for Language I will focus on the proficiencies related to themedium of instruction, (as chosen from list of prescribed language options in the application form).
• The Language II will be from among the prescribed options other than Language I. A candidate may choose any one language from the available language options and will be required to specify the same in the application
form. The test items in Language II will also focus on the elements of language,communication and comprehension abilities. 4
• The test items in Mathematics and Environmental Studies will focus on theconcepts, problem solving abilities and pedagogical understanding of thesubjects. In all these subject areas, the test items shall be evenly distributedover different divisions of the syllabus of that subject prescribed for classes I–Vby the appropriate Government.
• The questions in the tests for Paper I will be based on the topics of theprescribed syllabus of the State for classes I–V, but their difficulty standard, aswell as linkages, could be upto the secondary stage.


Paper II (for classes VI to VIII); No. of MCQs – 150;
Duration of examination : one-and-a-half hours
Structure and Content

I

Child Development and Pedagogy (compulsory )

30 Multipul Choice Questions

30 Marks

Ii

Language I (compulsory )

30 Multipul Choice Questions

30 Marks

Iii

Language II (compulsory )

30 Multipul Choice Questions

30 Marks

(iv) (a) For Mathematics and Science teacher : Mathematics and Science – 60 MCQs of 1 mark each
(b) For Social studies teacher : Social Studies – 60 MCQs of 1 mark each
(c) for any other teacher – either 4(a) or 4(b)
While designing and preparing the questions for Paper II, the examining body shall take the following factors into consideration:

• The test items on Child Development and Pedagogy will focus on educational psychology of teaching and learning, relevant to the age group 11-14 years. They will focus on understanding the characteristics, needs and psychology of diverse learners, interaction with learners and the attributes and qualities of a good facilitator of learning.
• The test items for Language I will focus on the proficiency related to the medium of instruction, as chosen from list of prescribed options in the application form.
• The Language II will be a language other than Language I. The person may choose any one language from among the available options and as in the specified list in the application form and attempt questions in the one indicated by the candidate in the application form by him. The Test items in Language II will also focus on the elements of language, communication and comprehension abilities.
• The test items in Mathematics and Science, and Social Studies will focus on the concepts, problem solving abilities and pedagogical understanding of these subjects. The test items of Mathematics and Science will be of 5 30 marks each. The test items shall be evenly distributed over different divisions of the syllabus of that subject as prescribed for classes VI-VIII by the appropriate government.
• The questions in the tests for Paper II will be based on the topics of theprescribed syllabus of the State for classes VI-VIII but their difficulty standard as well as linkages could be upto the senior secondary stage.
8 The question paper shall be bilingual – (i) in language(s) as decided by the appropriate Government; and (ii) English language.

Qualifying marks
9 A person who scores 60% or more in the TET exam will be considered as TET pass. School managements (Government, local bodies, government aided and unaided)
(a) may consider giving concessions to persons belonging to SC/ST, OBC,differently abled persons, etc., in accordance with their extant reservation policy;
(b) should give weightage to the TET scores in the recruitment process; however, qualifying the TET would not confer a right on any person forrecruitment/employment as it is only one of the eligibility criteria for appointment.

Applicability
10
(a) TET conducted by the Central Government shall apply to all schools referred to in
sub-clause (i) of clause (a) of section 2 of the RTE Act.
(b) TET conducted by a State Government/UT with legislature shall apply to :
(i) a school of the State Government/UT with legislature and local authority
referred to in sub-clause (i) of clause (n) of section 2 of the RTE Act; and
(ii) a school referred to in sub-clause (ii) of clause (n) of section 2 of the RTE Act in that State/UT.
A school at (i) and (ii) may also consider eligibility of a candidate who has obtained TET Certificate awarded by another State/UT with legislature. In case a State Government/UT with legislature decides not to conduct a TET, a school at (i) and (ii) in that State/UT would consider the TET conducted by the Central Government.
(c) A school referred to in sub-clause (iv) of clause (n) of section 2 of the RTE Act mayexercise the option of considering either the TET conducted by the Central Government or the TET conducted by the State Government/UT with legislature.

Frequency of conduct of TET and validity period of TET certificate
11 The appropriate Government should conduct a TET at least once every year. TheValidity Period of TET qualifying certificate for appointment will be decided by theappropriate Government subject to a maximum of seven years for all categories. But there will be no restriction on the number of attempts a person can take for acquiring a TET Certificate. A person who has qualified TET may also appear again for improving his/her score.

Procedure for conduct of the Test
12 The examining body shall formulate a detailed procedure and lay down instructionsfor conduct of the TET. Candidates should be informed that a very serious view will betaken of any malpractice or impersonation.

Legal Disputes
13 All legal disputes with regard to conduct of TET shall be subject to the jurisdiction ofthe appropriate Government.

Award of TET Certificate
14 The appropriate Government conducting the Test shall award a TET Certificate to all successful candidates. The certificate should contain the name and address of thecandidate, date of birth, Registration No. year/month of award of Certificate, marksobtained in each Paper, class level of its validity (Class I to V, class VI to VIII or both),and, in case of classes VI to VIII, the subject area (Science and Mathematics, SocialStudies, etc.). The certificate may be electronically generated with adequate securityfeatures. Appropriate may consider utilizing the services of specialized agencies forissuing de-materialized (demat) TET certificates as a security feature to avoid any kind ofmalpractice.

Monitoring
15 Following measures would be taken for monitoring the quality and administration ofthe TET:
(a) The appropriate Government shall appoint a Nodal Officer for the purpose ofTET.
(b) The NCTE would organize meetings of the Nodal Officers at least once everyyear.
(c) Every appropriate Government will forward a report of each TET to the NCTE in a format to be prescribed by the NCTE.
(d) The NCTE shall maintain data base and be the repository of experts andresources, including the technological tools for conduct of the TET, and shallshare it with the appropriate Government.

Guidelines for conducting Teachers Eligibility Test (TET) under the Right of Children to free and compulsory Education Act (RTE), in ANDHRA PRADESH
GOVERNMENT OF ANDHRA PRADESH
ABSTRACT
Secondary Education – Guidelines for conducting Teachers Eligibility Test (TET) under the Right of Children to free and compulsory Education Act (RTE), 2009 Eligibility Test – Orders – Issued.
———————————————————————————————————
SCHOOL EDUCATION (SE.GENL.II ) DEPARTMENT
G.O.Ms.No.51 Dated: 16th April, 2011.
Read the following:-

1.RTE 2009 of Ministry of Law and Justice, Govt., of India, Dated: 27.08.2009. 

2.From the NCTE, New Delhi, Lr.No.76-4/2010/Acad.A31215, Dated: 14.02.2011. 

3.From the Commissioner & Director of School Education, AP, Hyderabad Lr.Rc.No.40/N1-3/2011, dt: 22.03.2011.

O R D E R:
☼☼☼

In the reference 1st read above, Govt. of India have enacted RTE Act 2009 on 26.08.2009 titled “Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education “Act, 2009. In accordance with  provision of sub-section (1) of section 23 of the RTE Act, National Council for Teacher Education (NCTE), New Delhi had laid down minimum qualifications for a person to be eligible for appointment as a Teacher in Classes I to VIII in its Notification dated 23rd August, 2010. The minimum qualifications include a Pass in Teacher Eligibility Test (TET). Pursuant to the said guidelines, it has been decided to conduct Teacher Eligibility Test (TET) for all persons, who aspire to become teacher for classes I to VIII in schools (Govt. /ZP/MP/Muncipal/Pvt.Aided & Pvt.Aided) in the State of A.P., every year twice, one in June/July and another in December/January.     The rationale for including the TET as a minimum qualification for a person to be eligible for appointment as a teacher is as under:

  1. It would bring national standards and benchmark of teacher quality in the recruitment process.
  2. It would induce teacher education institutions and students from these institutions to further improve their performance standards;
iii.         It would send a positive signal to all stakeholders that the                                                Government lays special emphasis on teacher quality.

2.        In the reference 3rd read above, the Commissioner & Director of School Education, AP, Hyderabad has submitted proposals & guidelines for conducting Teacher Eligibility Test (TET).

3.         Government after careful examination of the proposal of Commissioner & Director of School Education, AP, Hyderabad here by issue the following guidelines/instructions for Teacher Eligibility Test (TET).
4.         In order to implement the conduct of TET, the committee is hereby constituted with the following members:-
1. Commissioner & Director of School Education         -Chairperson
2. Director, TET                                                                     – Convenor
3. Director, SCERT                                                              – Member
4. Director, Govt. Examinations                                         – Member
5. Joint Director (Services)                                                 – Member
5. The Committee is empowered to take decision on schedule for conduct of TET with Calendar of Activities, Logistics for conduct of TET, issue of Notification, etc.
6.         Director, SCERT will act as Director, TET till the new post of Director, TET is created.
7.         Further Govt. have decided to constitute a TET CELL for conduct of test with the following members:-
  1. Director (TET) ( In the rank of Director )
  2. One OSD in the rank of Addl. Director of School Education (Retired) (Chief Consultant)
  3. Joint Director (Regular) to be taken on deputation
  4. One consultant in the rank of Joint Director /Deputy Director (Retired)
  5. Two Teacher Educators ( to be taken on deputation )

8.         This cell is responsible for implementing the decision taken by the above committee for conduct of TET.
9.         Qualifying Marks in TET and Award of Certificate
A person who scores 60% or more in the TET examination will be considered as TET pass in general. However, in respect of candidate belonging to SC/ST and differently abled (at least 40% handicap), 40% score shall be the minimum pass mark and in respect of candidate belonging to BC 50% score shall be the minimum pass mark in TET.The Government empower Director (TET) to issue a TET certificate to all candidates.

10.       Weightage of TET scores in the teacher recruitment process of the State

It is proposed to provide 20% weightage to TET scores in the Teacher Recruitment of the State Government. i.e., 20% weightage is for TET and 80% wieghtage for written test in Teacher Recruitment Test (TRT) based on which selection lists can be prepared. By awarding this weightage of 20% of TET to TRT, the candidates will be encouraged to improve (if they so desire) their TET score by appearing a number of times for TET as TET is conducted once in 6 months.

11.       Exemption from Passing TET:

Teachers who were appointed before NCTE notification,               dt: 23.08.2010 by DSC or by   competent authority in Govt./Local Authority as per Recruitment rules prevalent at that time are exempted from appearing at TET exam. However, Teachers working in private schools whose appointments were not approved by competent authority in Government are not exempted from passing TET. Such teachers of private unaided school can appear at TET conducted by either State Government or Central Government. In respect of non approved teachers working in private aided schools, they should invariably appear at TET conducted by State Government only.

12.       Content, structure and other details of TET are enclosed in the annexure to the G.O.

13.       There shall be no additional financial commitment to Government on account of conduct of TET. Salaries for TET Cell staff, maintenance of TET cell conveyance, processing of results etc., shall be met from TET funds only.

14.       The Commissioner & Director of School Education, Hyderabad/ Director of TET / The Director, SCERT/The Director of Govt. Examinations shall take necessary action.

( BY ORDER AND IN THE NAME OF THE GOVERNOR OF ANDHRA PRADESH )


Dr. D. SAMBASIVA RAO,
PRINCIPAL SECRETARY TO GOVERNMENT.

To
The Director, Printing, Stationary & Stores Purchase, A.P., Hyderabad.
The Commissioner & Director of School Education, AP, Hyderabad
The Director, Teacher Eligibility Test, O/o the C&DSE, Hyderabad
The Director of SCERT, Hyderabad
The Director of Government Examinations, Hyderabad
The OSD (Chief Consultant), TET, Hyderabad
The Joint Director (Services),
O/o the Commissioner & Director of School Education, Hyderabad
Copy to:
The Account General, A.P. Hyderabad
The Pay and Accounts Officer, A.P., Hyderabad
The Principal  Secretary to CM
The P.S. to C.S
The P.S to M (School Education)
The P.S. to M (Primary Education)
The P.S. to Principal  Secretary,  School Education.
The P.S. to Principal  Secretary.  Primary Education
S.F / S.C

// Forwarded By Order //
SECTION OFFICER.

ANNEXURE to G.O.Ms.NO.      ,                                                                        School Education (SE:GEN.II) Deptt, dt: 16.04.2011
I) Eligibility criteria for Candidates for appearing at TET
a)    The candidate at the time of applying for TET should be in possession of the minimum qualifications prescribed for a teacher for category of I to V classes (Paper I) and VI to VIII classes (Paper II) separately in NCTE notification New Delhi, 23rd August 2010.
b)    Candidate seeking appointment for a medium in a school should opt that language of the medium as Language I under TET for Paper I. He should have studied at least up to Class X either in that medium or studied that language as first language at least up to Class X under state syllabus. In respect of CBSE/ICSE the second language of Class X (out of two equivalent languages studied) is also considered as first language as both languages in CBSE/ICSE  Class X have equal weightage  in terms of marks, syllabus, periods in time table etc. The following examples will clarify the doubts on eligibility criteria.
Ex i):         A candidate who studied in Telugu medium in Class X (State syllabus) is eligible to opt for Telugu under Language I of TET Paper I or TET Paper II or for both.
Ex ii):        A candidate who studied in English medium in Class X (State syllabus) with Telugu as first language in Class X is also eligible for Telugu medium teacher post. Hence he is permitted to choose Telugu under Language I of TET Paper I or II or both.
Ex iii):       A candidate who studied in CBSE syllabus, two languages English & Telugu for Class X is also eligible for Telugu medium teacher post because he studied Telugu as one of the two equivalent languages in terms of weightage of marks, content, periods in Time Table etc. Hence he is permitted to choose Telugu under Language I of TET Paper I or II or both.
Ex iv):       A Candidate who studied in English medium in Class X (State Syllabus) with Hindi as I Language is not eligible for Telugu Medium (T.M.) Teacher post (but he is eligible for Hindi Medium teacher post). Hence he can choose Hindi under Language I of TET Paper I or II or both.
Ex v):        A Candidate who studied in Urdu Medium in Class X (State Syllabus) with Urdu as I Language and Telugu as II Language is not eligible for T.M. Teacher post(but he is eligible for Urdu Medium Teacher Post). Hence he is permitted to choose Urdu under Language I of TET Paper I or II or both.
c)    The eligibility criteria from (a) to (b) above are criteria for TET only. But Government shall impose additional qualifications over and above these qualifications, specific to a teacher’s post at the time of notification for TRT.

II) Structure and Content of TET
The structure and content of the TET is given in the following paragraphs. All questions will be Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs), each carrying one mark, with four alternatives out of which one answer will be correct. There will be no negative marking. The examining body should strictly adhere to the structure and content of the TET specified below.
There will be two papers of the TET, Paper-I will be for a person who intends to be a teacher for Classes I to V. Paper-II will be for a person who intends to be a teacher for Classes VI to VIII. A person who intends to be a teacher either for classes I to V or for classes VI to VIII will have to appear in both papers (Paper I and Paper II).
Paper I (for Classes I to V); No. of MCQs – 150;
Duration of examination: two-and-a-half hours
Structure and Content (All Compulsory)
(i)            Child Development and Pedagogy          30 MCQs       30 Marks
(ii)          Language I                                                    30 MCQs       30 Marks
(iii)         Language II (English)                                 30 MCQs       30 Marks
(iv)         Mathematics                                                 30 MCQs       30 Marks
(v)          Environmental Studies                               30 MCQs       30 Marks
TOTAL                        150 MCQs     150 Marks

Note (1): The syllabus designed for Child Development and Pedagogy is based on D.Ed curriculum of the State of Andhra Pradesh.

Note (2): It is reiterated that candidates intending to seek appointment in a particular medium of school (Non-English Medium) should take that language under Language I. In Andhra Pradesh, the following languages are offered under Language I viz., Telugu, Urdu, Hindi, Bengali, Kannnada, Marathi, Oriya, Tamil and Gujarathi. Candidate is to choose one of these 9 languages under Language I. Those candidates would have compulsorily studied in that language either as medium of study or as first language at least up to Class X as stated in the eligibility criteria above.
Note (3): In respect of candidates who studied Class X through English Medium can take under      Language I, the language which he studied as first language  at least upto Class X.
Note (4): In respect of Andhra Pradesh language II shall be English for all candidates irrespective of medium of the school to which they intend to seek employment.
Note (5): The copies of syllabi for Mathematics & Environmental Studies which are designed on the basis of topics of Classes I to V with content raised to Class X level. The test items in Mathematics and Environmental Studies will contain MCQs not only on content but also on Pedagogy. In Mathematics 24 MCQs will be on content and 6 MCQs on pedagogy. Similarly in Environmental Studies 24 MCQs will be on content and 6 MCQs on pedagogy.
Note (6): The syllabi for Language I & II shall be based on proficiency in the language, elements of language, communication and comprehension abilities (standard up to Class X level).
Note (7): 30 MCQs under Language I & II each shall include 6 questions on pedagogy of a language.
Paper II (for classes VI to VIII); No of MCQs – 150;
Duration of examination: two-and-a-half hours
Structure and Content
(i)            Child Development and Pedagogy (Compulsory)30 MCQs    30 Marks
(ii)          Language I (Compulsory)                          30 MCQs       30 Marks
(iii)         Language II (English)                                 30 MCQs       30 Marks
(iv)         (a) For Mathematics and Science teacher: Mathematics and Science – 60 MCQs of 1  mark each
OR
(b) For Social studies teacher : Social Studies – 60 MCQs of 1 mark each
(c) for any other teacher – either iv (a) or iv (b)

Note:   A) The syllabus for Child Development and Pedagogy under Paper II is based on the syllabus of D.Ed / B.Ed curriculum focusing on Educational Psychology of Teaching and Learning in Classes VI and above. The syllabus also focuses on understanding the characteristics, needs and psychology of diverse learners, interaction with learners and the attributes and qualities of a good facilitator of learning.

Note:   B) In Andhra Pradesh, the following languages are offered under Language I viz., Telugu, Urdu, Hindi, Bengali, Kannnada, Marathi, Oriya, Tamil and Gujarathi. Candidate is to choose one of these 9 languages under Language I.
Note:   C) In respect of Andhra Pradesh language II shall be English for all candidates.
Note:   D) For Paper II Science & Mathematics sectors questions will be as follows:
Mathematics             -           30 MCQs (Content 24; Pedagogy 06)
Physical Science     -           14 MCQs (Content 12; Pedagogy 02)
Biological Science   -           16 MCQs (Content 12; Pedagogy 04)
TOTAL                                    -           60 Questions

Note:   E) For Paper II Social Studies portion the syllabus will cover the sectors namely, History,  Geography, Civics and Economics based on topics of Classes VI to VIII with content raised up  to Senior Secondary level (12th Class).
Note:   F) For Paper II the syllabi for TET of Mathematics & Sciences, Social Studies are based on topics  of Classes VI to VIII with content raised up to Senior Secondary Level (12th Class).
Note:   G) The syllabi for Language I & II shall be based on proficiency in the language, elements of language, communication and comprehension abilities (standard up to Senior Secondary  Level (12th Class)).

III) Medium of Question Paper
The question paper shall be bilingual – (i) in 9 language(s) viz. Telugu, Urdu, Hindi, Bengali, Kannada, Marathi, Oriya, Tamil, Gujarathi and in (ii) English language.

The certificate may contain the name and address of the candidate, Registration No. year/month of award of Certificate, marks obtained in each paper, class level of its validity (Class I to V, class VI to VIII or both), and, in case of classes VI to VIII, the subject area (Science and Mathematics, Social Studies) etc. The certificate may be electronically generated with adequate security features. Government may consider utilizing the services of agencies for issuing de-materialized (demat) TET certificates as a security feature to avoid any kind of malpractice.

IV) Frequency of conduct of TET
Every year TET will be conducted 2 times, one in June/July and another in December/January. First TET in the State is proposed to be conducted   by end of the July 2011 (Sunday).
Paper I                       :           2 hours and 30 minutes
Paper II                      :           2 hours and 30 minutes
V) How to Constitute Examination Centres for TET
a)    Any Central Government/State Government/Local Body/Private recognized High School/ Jr. College/ Degree College /P.G. College/COE/ D.Ed College/Engineering College/Polytechnic/ITI can be identified by DEO with the approval of District Collector for constituting an exam centre for TET.
b)    Each centre with good accommodation and furniture is supposed to have a capacity ofOptimum 240, Maximum 300 for allotment of candidates.
c)    The centres in the District will be identified in District Head Quarters and Municipal Towns & Cities and erstwhile taluq head quarters only.
d)    If an institution has good accommodation and furniture, multiple centres up to a limit of 4 centres in that institution can be constituted, and can be designated as ‘A’ centre, ‘B’ centre, ‘C’ centre and ‘D’ centre of same address with separate centre Nos.

VI) TET Cell
It is proposed to constitute a cell urgently with the following staff to man the conduct of TET (The first TET is scheduled to be held by July end 2011.

1)      Director (TET) in the rank of  Director
2)Joint DirectorThe salaries will be met from the funds of TET without any financial commitment to the Government
3)Two consultants
4)Two Teacher Educators
5)Out Sourcing Staff like Data entry operators, Attenders etc.As required

The other office work relating to TET will be taken up with services of required outsourcing staff

Note:   The expenditure of the Outsourcing staff can be met from the sale proceeds of applications without any financial commitment to the Government
VII) Schedule for TET
a) Notification for calling applications for TET
b) Sale of Blank Application and Receipt of
Application from candidates by the DEOs
c) Issue of Hall Tickets
d) Conduct of TET
Above Four things As decided By the  TET committee
Paper I                                               :           2 hours 30 minutes
Paper II                                              :           2 hours 30 minutes
VIII) Role and Responsibilities
Director (TET) is empowered to conduct TET in an effective manner assisted by field functionaries viz. DEOs, RJDSEs etc. He shall take up pre examination, and post examination activities scrupulously as per schedule for every TET. He should formulate a detailed procedure and lay down instructions for conducting of TET. DEO shall be the Officer responsible to implement the conduct of examination in the District under the overall supervision of District Collector.
IX) Legal Disputes
All legal disputes with regard to conduct of TET shall be subject to Jurisdiction of State Government.

Dr. D. SAMBASIVA RAO,
PRINCIPAL SECRETARY TO GOVERNMENT.

Friday, March 9, 2012

REASONING SECTION - Part -I IBPS EXAM - BANK APTITUDE TEST

Latest Updated Exam / Guess Papers - http://syllabus123.blogspot.com/
Bank Exam Paper / Model Paper for Upcoming Exams IBPS
(Institute of Banking Personal Selection Board)

REASONING SECTION (PART - I)

What Type of questions -

Reasoning Based on Logic -
(A)  Argument
Argument is fundamental to all logic.
Posible type -
(i) What is ith inference of this argument ?
(ii) What are the assumptions of this argument ?
(iii) What are the strengthening points of this argument ?
(iv) Whether this argument is weak OR strong ?

Standard ways of arguing -
Argument by example
Argument by Analogy
Casual Argument
Salesman's Argument
Argument Based on Chronology

e.g - Computer was invented many years after radio.. Therefore computer has a technology superior to that of Radio.
The movie "London Paris Newyork ABC " was released two months earlier than "  XYZ".
So the former could not be a copy of latter.
.........
To identify conclusions , You should identify following -
therefore , thus , so, hence , consequently , as a result , it follows that, it can be inferred that, which shows that, which proves that, which means that

If you are UNABLE to find out these, then ask yourself Where can I use / put such words.
-------------------
Learn to identify Key words -
all, always, at least, at most, but can be, can not be, consecutive, directly, each, every, exactly,
except, if, immediately, impossible , must be, never, no fewer than, no mre than, none, only, only once, perfectly, possible, certain, sure, probably, same, some, the least, the most, unless, in spite off, despite, because of
-------------------
Visit Regularily to this Blog, We try to give you a lot of examples, practice to tackle bank examinations.
----------------

(B) ASSUMPTIONS
Format of the problem -
1) If only assumption I is implicit
2) If only assumption II is implicit
3) Either assumption I OR assumption II is implicit
(4) Neither of the assumptions is implicit
(5) Both the assumptions are implicit.

Statement - Advertisement - Beware of Cheaters
Assumptions - I. Peiople will listen it.
II. People will not listen it.
Ans.  I ,  If advt. is given, it means people will listen else it is of No use. 
(As I believe)
.....
(i) Always put your eye on such words - Only, Best. Strongest, All, Definitely, Certainly etc.

(ii) Conjunctions -
(a) A (because / as a result of ) B -->> It is assumed that B leads to A
Students result improved after Mr. Anil teaches.
Valid assumption -> Mr. Anil is a good teacher.

(b) A (therefore / hence ) B -->> It is assumed that A leads to B
This Noble prize wins by an Indian, therefore all Indians must be feeling very proud.
Valid assumption->> Geting a prize by fellow countryman makes other citizens proud.


(c) A (even after / in spite of / despite ) B -->> It is asumed that usually A does not occur when B occurs.
India looses Cricket match with Bangladesh even after having good players.
Valid Assumption -> Good players usually sufficient to make victory

(d) not A ( even after / in spite of / despite ) B -->> It is assumed that usually A occurs when B does.
Statement - There was no injury to any person  even after heavy stampede in temple.
Valid assumption- > Heavy stampede usually leads to injury to public.

(iii) Connovative( Slightly indirect) phrases - Some times a person says in indirect way and you may miss to understand.
eg. - "It is true" can be written as  :
(a) It can be claimed with resonable degree of truth that -
(b) It would be correct to say that -
(c) Even the most sceptic of men would agree that...

Similarily -
"It is false " can be written as -
(a) It is baseless to say that....
(b) Nothing could be farther from truth than.....
(c) It would be highly misleading to say that...

Guess Paper Bank Officer Exam for 11th March 2012

Latest Updated Exam / Guess Papers - http://syllabus123.blogspot.com/

Bank Exam Paper / Model Paper for Specialist Computer / IT Officer Scale - I /II
(EXAMINATION to be held on 11th March 2012 )
1. The _____ states that a foreign key must either match a primary key value in another relation or it must be null.
(a) entity integrity rule


2. An applet __________
(c) is a compiled program that usually runs on the client

3. A _____ sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk.
(e) None of these

4. Which error detection method uses one’s complement arithmetic?
(b) Checksum

5. A result of a computer virus can not lead to ___.
(b) Mother Board Crash

6. The network interface card of LAN is related to following layer of OSI Model-
(e) All of these

7. Which of the following does not describe a data warehouse?
(d) Updateable

8. Which of the following is true ?
(a) Logical design is software-dependent

9. A range check _____
(c) determines whether a number is within a specified limit

10. The total set of interlinked hypertext documents worldwide is-
(c) WWW

11. With the object-oriented (OO) approach, an object encapsulates, or_____.a programmer.
(b) hides, the details of an object from

12. Every computer connected to an intranet or extranet must have a distinct_____
(c) IP address

13. A table of bits in which each row represents the distinct values of a key?
(b) Bitmap index

14. The degree of detail that should be incorporated into a database depends on what?
(b) The type of database

15. The ___ converts digital signals to analog signals for the purpose of transmitting data over telephone lines.
(a) Modem

16. Before a package can be used in a java program it must be___.
(c) imported

17. Choose the correct way to indicate that a line in a C++ program is a comment line, that is, a line the will not be executed as an instruction___.
(b) begin the line with double slashes (/ /)

18. Programming language built into user programs such as Word and Excel are known as____
(c) object-oriented languages

19. Firewalls are used to protect against___.
(a) Unauthorized Attacks

20. This is a standard way for a Web server to pass a Web user’s request to an application program and to receive data back to forward to the user-
(e) Common gateway interface

21. Three SQL, DDL, CREATE commands are__.
(d) Schema, Table and View

22. Data are ________ in client/server computing.
(c) sent only upon the client’s request

23. Which of the following will not eliminates the ambiguities of a null value?
(d) Define supertypes

24. The____directory is mandatory for every disk.
(a) Root

25. This is a group of servers that share work and may be able to back each other up if one server fails.
(b) Cluster


Bank Exam Paper / Model Paper for Specialist Computer / IT Officer Scale - I /II (EXAM to be held on 11th March 2012 )

Latest Updated Exam / Guess Papers - http://syllabus123.blogspot.com/Bank Exam Paper / Model Paper for Specialist  Computer / IT Officer Scale - I /II
(EXAMINATION to be held on 11th March 2012 )


1. The ________ states that a foreign key must either match a primary key value in another relation or it must be null.

(a) entity integrity rule

(b) referential integrity constraint

(c) action assertion

(d) composite attribute

(e) None of these






2. An applet ________

(a) is an interpreted program that runs on the client

(b) tracks the number of visitors to a Website

(c) is a compiled program that usually runs on the client

(d) collects data from visitors to a Website

(e) None of these


3. A ________ sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk.

(a) system virus

(b) Trojan horse virus

(c) file virus

(d) macro virus

(e) None of these

4. Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic?

(a) Simply parity check

(b) Checksum

(c) Two-dimensional parity check

(d) CRC

(e) None of these

5. A result of a computer virus can NOT lead to ________ .

(a) Disk Crash

(b) Mother Board Crash

(c) Corruption of program

(d) Deletion of files

(e) None of these

6. The network interface card of LAN is related to following layer of OSI Model

(a) Transport

(b) Network

(c) Data Link

(d) Physical

(e) All of these

7. Which of the following does NOT describe a data warehouse?

(a) Subject-oriented

(b) Integrated

(c) Time-variant

(d) Updateable

(e) None of these

8. Which of the following is TRUE ?

(a) Logical design is software-dependent

(b) In a distributed database, database is stored in one physical location

(c) Conceptual design translates the logical design into internal model

(d) Logical design is software independent

(e) None of these

9. A range check ________

(a) ensures that only the correct data type is entered into a field

(b) verifies that all required data is present

(c) determines whether a number is within a specified limit

(d) tests if the data in two or more associated fields is logical

(e) None of these

10. The total set of interlinked hypertext documents worldwide is-

(a) HTTP

(b) Browser

(c) WWW

(d) B2B

(e) None of these

11. With the object-oriented (OO) approach, an object encapsulates, or ________ .a programmer.

(a) carries out, the details of an object for

(b) hides, the details of an object from

(c) reveals, the details of an object to

(d) extends, the details of an object beyond

(e) None of these

12. Every computer connected to an intranet or extranet must have a distinct ________

(a) firewall

(b) proxy server

(c) IP address

(d) domain name

(e) None of these

13. A table of bits in which each row represents the distinct values of a key?

(a) Join index

(b) Bitmap index

(c) B + Tree

(d) Hierarchical index

(e) None of these

14. The degree of detail that should be incorporated into a database depends on what?

(a) Data integrity

(b) The type of database

(c) The user's perspective

(d) The business practices and policies

(e) None of these

15. The ________ converts digital signals to analog signals for the purpose of transmitting data over telephone lines.

(a) Modem

(b) Router

(c) Gateway

(d) Bridge

(e) All of these

16. Before a package can be used in a java program it must be ________ .

(a) executed

(b) referenced

(c) imported

(d) declared

(e) None of these

17. Choose the correct way to indicate that a line in a C++ program is a comment line, that is, a line the will not be executed as an instruction ________ .

(a) begin the line with a # sign

(b) begin the line with double slashes (/ /)

(c) begin and end the line with double hyphens (- _ -)

(d) indent the line

(e) None of these

18. Programming language built into user programs such as Word and Excel are known as ________

(a) 4GLs

(b) macro languages

(c) object-oriented languages

(d) visual programming languages

(e) None of these

19. Firewalls are used to protect against ________ .

(a) Unauthorized Attacks

(b) Virus Attacks

(c) Data Driven Attacks

(d) Fire Attacks

(e) All of these

20. This is a standard way for a Web server to pass a Web user's request to an application program and to receive data back to forward to the user-

(a) Interrupt request

(b) Forward DNS lookup

(c) Data-Link layer

(d) File Transfer Protocol

(e) Common gateway interface

21. Three SQL, DDL, CREATE commands are ________ .

(a) Schema, Base and Table

(b) Base, Table and Schema

(c) Key, Base and Table

(d) Schema, Table and View

(e) None of these

22. Data are ________ in client/server computing.

(a) never sent to the client machine

(b) sent in very large sections to save processing time

(c) sent only upon the client's request

(d) sent in complete copies for the client to filter and sort

(e) sent from the client to the server for processing

23. Which of the following will NOT eliminates the ambiguities of a null value?

(a) Define the attribute as required

(b) Define subtypes

(c) Define each attribute as having an initial value that is recognized as blank

(d) Define supertypes

(e) None of these

24. The ________ directory is mandatory for every disk.

(a) Root

(b) Base

(c) Sub

(d) Case

(e) None of these

25. This is a group of servers that share work and may be able to back each other up if one server fails.

(a) Channel bank

(b) Cluster

(c) Tiger team

(d) Serverless backup

(e) Logical unit

ANSWERS

1. (a), 2. (c), 3. (e), 4. (b), 5. (b)
6. (e), 7. (d), 8. (a), 9. (c), 10. (a)
11. (b), 12. (c), 13. (b), 14. (b), 15. (a)
16. (c), 17. (b), 18. (d), 19. (a), 20. (e)
21. (d), 22. (c), 23. (d), 24. (c), 25. (b)

Wednesday, March 7, 2012

Bank IT Officer (Specialist Oficer ) - Computer Awarenes Exam Paper

Latest Updated Exam / Guess Papers - http://syllabus123.blogspot.com/
Bank IT Officer (Specialist Oficer ) - Computer Awarenes Exam Paper


Following are the questions and correct answers of those questions:

1. The _____ states that a foreign key must either match a primary key value in another relation or it must be null.
(a) entity integrity rule

2. An applet __________
(c) is a compiled program that usually runs on the client

3. A _____ sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk.
(e) None of these

4. Which error detection method uses one’s complement arithmetic?
(b) Checksum

5. A result of a computer virus can not lead to ___.
(b) Mother Board Crash

6. The network interface card of LAN is related to following layer of OSI Model-
(e) All of these

7. Which of the following does not describe a data warehouse?
(d) Updateable

8. Which of the following is true ?
(a) Logical design is software-dependent

9. A range check _____
(c) determines whether a number is within a specified limit

10. The total set of interlinked hypertext documents worldwide is-
(c) WWW

11. With the object-oriented (OO) approach, an object encapsulates, or_____.a programmer.
(b) hides, the details of an object from

12. Every computer connected to an intranet or extranet must have a distinct_____
(c) IP address

13. A table of bits in which each row represents the distinct values of a key?
(b) Bitmap index

14. The degree of detail that should be incorporated into a database depends on what?
(b) The type of database

15. The ___ converts digital signals to analog signals for the purpose of transmitting data over telephone lines.

(a) Modem

16. Before a package can be used in a java program it must be___.
(c) imported

17. Choose the correct way to indicate that a line in a C++ program is a comment line, that is, a line the will not be executed as an instruction___.
(b) begin the line with double slashes (/ /)

18. Programming language built into user programs such as Word and Excel are known as____
(c) object-oriented languages

19. Firewalls are used to protect against___.
(a) Unauthorized Attacks

20. This is a standard way for a Web server to pass a Web user’s request to an application program and to receive data back to forward to the user-
(e) Common gateway interface

21. Three SQL, DDL, CREATE commands are__.
(d) Schema, Table and View

22. Data are ________ in client/server computing.
(c) sent only upon the client’s request

23. Which of the following will not eliminates the ambiguities of a null value?
(d) Define supertypes

24. The____directory is mandatory for every disk.
(a) Root

25. This is a group of servers that share work and may be able to back each other up if one server fails.
(b) Cluster

Bank IT Officer (Specialist Oficer ) - Computer Awarenes Exam Paper

Latest Updated Exam / Guess Papers - http://syllabus123.blogspot.com/
Bank IT Officer (Specialist Oficer ) - Computer Awarenes Exam Paper


1. The ________ states that a foreign key must either match a primary key value in another relation or it must be null.

(a) entity integrity rule

(b) referential integrity constraint

(c) action assertion

(d) composite attribute

(e) None of these






2. An applet ________

(a) is an interpreted program that runs on the client

(b) tracks the number of visitors to a Website

(c) is a compiled program that usually runs on the client

(d) collects data from visitors to a Website

(e) None of these


3. A ________ sometimes called a boot sector virus, executes when a computer boots up because it resides in the boot sector of a floppy disk or the master boot record of a hard disk.

(a) system virus

(b) Trojan horse virus

(c) file virus

(d) macro virus

(e) None of these

4. Which error detection method uses one's complement arithmetic?

(a) Simply parity check

(b) Checksum

(c) Two-dimensional parity check

(d) CRC

(e) None of these

5. A result of a computer virus can NOT lead to ________ .

(a) Disk Crash

(b) Mother Board Crash

(c) Corruption of program

(d) Deletion of files

(e) None of these

6. The network interface card of LAN is related to following layer of OSI Model

(a) Transport

(b) Network

(c) Data Link

(d) Physical

(e) All of these

7. Which of the following does NOT describe a data warehouse?

(a) Subject-oriented

(b) Integrated

(c) Time-variant

(d) Updateable

(e) None of these

8. Which of the following is TRUE ?

(a) Logical design is software-dependent

(b) In a distributed database, database is stored in one physical location

(c) Conceptual design translates the logical design into internal model

(d) Logical design is software independent

(e) None of these

9. A range check ________

(a) ensures that only the correct data type is entered into a field

(b) verifies that all required data is present

(c) determines whether a number is within a specified limit

(d) tests if the data in two or more associated fields is logical

(e) None of these

10. The total set of interlinked hypertext documents worldwide is-

(a) HTTP

(b) Browser

(c) WWW

(d) B2B

(e) None of these

11. With the object-oriented (OO) approach, an object encapsulates, or ________ .a programmer.

(a) carries out, the details of an object for

(b) hides, the details of an object from

(c) reveals, the details of an object to

(d) extends, the details of an object beyond

(e) None of these

12. Every computer connected to an intranet or extranet must have a distinct ________

(a) firewall

(b) proxy server

(c) IP address

(d) domain name

(e) None of these

13. A table of bits in which each row represents the distinct values of a key?

(a) Join index

(b) Bitmap index

(c) B + Tree

(d) Hierarchical index

(e) None of these

14. The degree of detail that should be incorporated into a database depends on what?

(a) Data integrity

(b) The type of database

(c) The user's perspective

(d) The business practices and policies

(e) None of these

15. The ________ converts digital signals to analog signals for the purpose of transmitting data over telephone lines.

(a) Modem

(b) Router

(c) Gateway

(d) Bridge

(e) All of these

16. Before a package can be used in a java program it must be ________ .

(a) executed

(b) referenced

(c) imported

(d) declared

(e) None of these

17. Choose the correct way to indicate that a line in a C++ program is a comment line, that is, a line the will not be executed as an instruction ________ .

(a) begin the line with a # sign

(b) begin the line with double slashes (/ /)

(c) begin and end the line with double hyphens (- _ -)

(d) indent the line

(e) None of these

18. Programming language built into user programs such as Word and Excel are known as ________

(a) 4GLs

(b) macro languages

(c) object-oriented languages

(d) visual programming languages

(e) None of these

19. Firewalls are used to protect against ________ .

(a) Unauthorized Attacks

(b) Virus Attacks

(c) Data Driven Attacks

(d) Fire Attacks

(e) All of these

20. This is a standard way for a Web server to pass a Web user's request to an application program and to receive data back to forward to the user-

(a) Interrupt request

(b) Forward DNS lookup

(c) Data-Link layer

(d) File Transfer Protocol

(e) Common gateway interface

21. Three SQL, DDL, CREATE commands are ________ .

(a) Schema, Base and Table

(b) Base, Table and Schema

(c) Key, Base and Table

(d) Schema, Table and View

(e) None of these

22. Data are ________ in client/server computing.

(a) never sent to the client machine

(b) sent in very large sections to save processing time

(c) sent only upon the client's request

(d) sent in complete copies for the client to filter and sort

(e) sent from the client to the server for processing

23. Which of the following will NOT eliminates the ambiguities of a null value?

(a) Define the attribute as required

(b) Define subtypes

(c) Define each attribute as having an initial value that is recognized as blank

(d) Define supertypes

(e) None of these

24. The ________ directory is mandatory for every disk.

(a) Root

(b) Base

(c) Sub

(d) Case

(e) None of these

25. This is a group of servers that share work and may be able to back each other up if one server fails.

(a) Channel bank

(b) Cluster

(c) Tiger team

(d) Serverless backup

(e) Logical unit

ANSWERS

1. (a), 2. (c), 3. (e), 4. (b), 5. (b)
6. (e), 7. (d), 8. (a), 9. (c), 10. (a)
11. (b), 12. (c), 13. (b), 14. (b), 15. (a)
16. (c), 17. (b), 18. (d), 19. (a), 20. (e)
21. (d), 22. (c), 23. (d), 24. (c), 25. (b)


Monday, February 20, 2012

Forthcoming Competitive Exams : 2012

Latest Updated Exam / Guess Papers - http://syllabus123.blogspot.com/
Forthcoming Competitive Exams : 2012

February
● Army Religious Teacher Exam. (February 26)
● Madhya Pradesh Assistant Grade 3/Lower Division Clerk/Registration Clerk Combined Selection Exam., 2011 (February 26)



March
● Jharkhand Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (March 4)
● Madhya Pradesh Excellence School Entrance Test for Class IX (March 4)
● Surguja Kshetriya Gramin Bank Clerk-cum-Cashier (Office-Assistant) Exam. (March 4)
● Uttar Bihar Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (March 4)
● Common Written Exam. (CWE) for Specialist Officers (March 11)
● State Bank of India Clerical Cadre Exam. for SC/ST/OBC (March 18)
● Uttar Bihar Gramin Bank Officers Exam. (March 18)
● Himachal Gramin Bank Officers Scale I &Scale II Exam. (March 18)
● Pragathi Gramin Bank Officer Junior Management Scale I Exam. (March 18)
● M.P. MBA&MCA Courses Entrance, Exam. 2012 (March 18)
● Himachal Gramin Bank Office Assistant Exam. (March 25)
April
● C.B.S.E. All India Pre-Medical and Pre-Dental (Pre.) Exam., 2012 (April 1)
● SSC Junior Engineer (Civil and Electrical) Exam., 2012 (April 8)
● Chhattisgarh Subedar/Sub-Inspector Cadre/Platoon Commander Pre. Exam., 2011 (April 8)
● Oriental Insurance Co. Ltd. Administrative Officers Exam. (April 8)
● U.P.S.C. National Defence Academy and Naval Academy Exam. (I), 2012 (April 15)
● M. P. Forest Guard Selection Test, 2012 (April 15) (Online Closing Date : 23 February, 2012)
● Recruitment of Constables (GD) and Rifleman (GD) in CAPFs, 2012 (BSF/CRPF/CISF/SSB/ITBPF/Assam/Rifles) (April 22)
● U.P. B.Ed. Joint Entrance Exam., 2012-13 (April 23) (Closing Date : 10 March, 2012)
● All India Engineering/Architecture Entrance Exam., 2012 (April 29)

May
● Ph. D. Common Eligibility Test (Held by Ram Manohar Lohia Avadh Visvavidyalaya) (April 29) (Closing Date : 20 March, 2012)
● Chhattisgarh Public Service Commission State Services Exam., 2011 (May 6)
● U.P. Polytechnic Joint Entrance Exam., 2012) (May 6-8)
● C.B.S.E. All India Pre-Medical and Pre-Dental (Main) Exam., 2012 (May 13)
● Common Law Admission Test (CLAT), 2012 (May 13) (Closing Date : 31 March, 2012)
● Chhattisgarh Subedar/Sub-Inspector/Platoon Commander Main Exam., 2011 (May 13-14)
● SSC Sub-Inspector in CPOs and Intelligence Officer in NCB Exam., 2012 (May 27) (Closing Date : 16 March, 2012)

July
● SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-I) Exam., 2012 (July 1 & 8) (Closing Date : 20 April, 2012)
● SSC Stenographers Grade ‘C’&‘D’ Exam., 2012 (July 29) (Closing Date : 25 May, 2012)

September
● SSC Combined Graduate Level (Tier-II) Exam., 2012 (September 15-16)

October
● SSC Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) for Data Entry Operator, LDC etc. Exam., 2012 (October 21) (Closing Date : 10 August, 2012)

November
● SSC Junior Translators (CSOLS)/Junior Hindi Translator Exam., 2012 (November 18) (Closing Date : 5 October, 2012)

Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti - Mode of Selection

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Navodaya Vidyalaya Samiti - Mode of Selection


1. The Written Examination for the recruitment to the above mentioned posts is likely to be held at following centres (code of the center are mentioned against the name of the city (Refer Column No. 05 Of The Application).

Examination City City Code Examination City City Code
Ahmedabad 11 Jaipur 22
Bangalore 12 Jammu 23
Bhopal 13 Kolkata 24
Bhubaneshwer 14 Lucknow 25
Chandigarh 15 Mumbai / Pune 26
Chennai 16 Patna 27
Dehradun 17 Raipur 28
Delhi 18 Ranchi 29
Guwahati 19 Shimla 30
Hyderabad 20 Srinagar 31
Imphal 21 Thiruvanthapuram 32

2. Blind candidates will be provided with the assistance of guides at the respective Examination Centre who will assist them in the examination process. Such candidate must write clearly about their disability in the application form for making necessary arrangements. An extra time of 30 minutes in each of the paper will be given to such candidates.

3. Candidates admitted to the examination will be sent an Admit Card permitting them to take examination. No candidate will be permitted to appear in the examination hall without the Admit Card alongwith date sheet and specific instructions.

4. The Written test will consist of three papers for both PGT and TGT as under:-

Post Graduate Teachers
Paper Subject Marks / Duration
Paper-I General Paper
Common Paper For All Posts Of PGTs: Objective type multiple choice questions on General English, General Awareness, General Intelligence & Reasoning, Numerical Ability and Teaching Aptitude.
60 Marks / 2 hrs.
Paper-II (Language Proficiency)
Objective type Hindi / English Language proficiency test.
40 marks / 1 hr.
Paper-III Subject Paper
Descriptive questions in the concerned subject. The difficulty level of the question paper will be of Post Graduation level. Paper III of only those candidates will be evaluated who have secured minimum cut-off marks in Paper-I (General Paper) as well as in Paper-II (Language Proficiency).
80 Marks / 2 hrs.
Trained Graduate Teachers & Misc. Categories
Paper-I General Paper
Common Paper For All Posts Of Tgts Including Misc. CategoriesObjective type multiple choice questions on General English, General Awareness, General Intelligence & Reasoning, Numerical Ability and Teaching Aptitude.
60 Marks/ 2 hrs.
Paper-II(Language Proficiency-subject test)
Objective type questions in concerned subject with multiple choice answers. For the post of TGT in Hindi and English all the questions will be in Hindi and English respectively, on the subject matter. For all other parts, the questions will be provided in one of the 13 Regional Languages, as mentioned in Para-5 below. Candidate will have to answer these questions in the language which he / she opts. It is, therefore, compulsory that candidates must fill up the option of Regional Language in which they would like to appear for the Exam in Col. 15 of the application form. Difficulty level of question paper will be of Graduation Level.
40 Marks / 1 hr.
Paper-III(Subject Paper)
Descriptive Questions in concerned subject. The medium of examination will be English / Hindi. Difficulty level will be of Graduation level. A candidate appearing for the examination will have to answer the question paper either in Hindi or English. Paper-III of only those candidates will be evaluated who have secured minimum cut-off marks in Paper-I (General Paper) as well as in Paper-II (Language Proficiency-subject test).
80 Marks / 2 hrs.



Wednesday, February 1, 2012

Hottest Current Event for Exams - Bank, Railway, Public Service Commissions, Civil Service

Latest Updated Exam / Guess Papers - http://syllabus123.blogspot.com/
Hottest Current Event for Exams - Bank, Railway, Public Service Commissions, Civil Service

North Korean leader Kim Jong Il dead -
North Korean leader Kim Jong Il is dead, North Korean state TV said Monday.Kim, 69, died Saturday, state TV said.The son of Kim Il Song, the founder of the communist nation, Kim Jong Il had been in power since 1994 when his father died of a heart attack at age 82.

See More Details - http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kim_Jong-il