RRB Malda-TC Exam Previous Year Solved Paper

RRB Malda-TC Exam Previous Year Solved Paper

RRB Malda-TC Exam 2008 Solved Paper(Held on 03-02-2008)

1. The speed of light with the rise in the temperature of the medium—
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Remains unaltered
(D) Drops sharply
Ans : (C)


2. Which from the following rivers does not originate in Indian territory?
(A) Mahanadi
(B) Brahmaputra
(C) Ravi
(D) Chenab
Ans : (B)


3. The gas predominantly responsible for global warning is—
(A) Carbon dioxide
(B) Carbon monoxide
(C) Nitrous oxide
(D) Nitrogen peroxide
Ans : (A)


4. 26th January is India’s—
(A) Independence Day
(B) Republic Day
(C) Revolution Day
(D) Parliament Day
Ans : (B)


5. Which of the following uses non-conventional Source of Energy?
(A) Kerosene lamp
(B) Wax candle
(C) Solar lantern
(D) Torch
Ans : (C)


6. Electric current is measured by—
(A) Voltmeter
(B) Anemometer
(C) Commutator
(D) Ammeter
Ans : (D)


7. The dynamo is a device for converting—
(A) Heat energy into electrical energy
(B) Mechanical energy into electrical energy
(C) Magnetic energy into electrical energy
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)


8. Galvanised Iron sheets have a coating of—
(A) Tin
(B) Lead
(C) Zinc
(D) Chromium
Ans : (C)


9. The hardest substance available on earth is—
(A) Platinum
(B) Diamond
(C) Quartz
(D) gold
Ans : (A)


10. Washing soda is the common name for—
(A) Calcium carbonate
(B) Calcium bicarbonate
(C) Sodium carbonate
(D) Sodium bicarbonate
Ans : (C)


11. 2008 Olympic games will be held in—
(A) China
(B) Greece
(C) Italy
(D) France
Ans : (A)


12. Who among the following has been appointed as the new Captain of Indian Test Cricket Team?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar
(B) Rahul Dravid
(C) Anil Kumble
(D) Mahender Singh Dhoni
Ans : (C)


13. Who among the following has been selected as new coach for the Indian Cricket Team?
(A) Vivian Richards
(B) Gary Kirsten
(C) Kapil Dev
(D) Allan Border
Ans : (B)


14. The mascot for the 34th National Games, to be held in Jharkhand in 2008, is—
(A) Sheru
(B) Roopa
(C) Chauva
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)


15. With which game is the Agha Khan Cup associated?
(A) Football
(B) Badminton
(C) Basketball
(D) Hockey
Ans : (D)


16. The term, L.B.W. is associated with which of the following games?
(A) Cricket
(B) Hockey
(C) Football
(D) Polo
Ans : (A)


17. Wankhede stadium is situated in?
(A) Chandigarh
(B) Bangalore
(C) Mumbai
(D) Chennai
Ans : (C)


18. The Olympic games are normally held at an interval of—
(A) 2 years
(B) 3 years
(C) 4 years
(D) 5 years
Ans : (C)


19. Jaspal Rana is the name associated with which of the following games?
(A) Boxing
(B) Shooting
(C) Archery
(D) Weight lifting
Ans : (B)


20. Netaji Subhash National Institute of Sports is located at—
(A) Kolkata
(B) New Delhi
(C) Jhansi
(D) Patiala
Ans : (D)


21. A person wants to contest election for the membership of Gram Panchayat, what should be his age?
(A) 18 years or above
(B) 19 years or above
(C) 21 years of above
(D) Minimum 25 years
Ans : (C)


22. Who summons the joint sitting of the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha?
(A) President
(B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(D) Prime Minister
Ans : (A)


23. Which of the following is not a source of revenue to the village panchayat?
(A) Property Tax
(B) House Tax
(C) Land Tax
(D) Vehicle Tax
Ans : (C)


24. All electioneering campaigns during the time of elections are stopped.
(A) 48 hours before the appointed time of election results
(B) 48 hours before the actual poll
(C) 24 hours before the actual poll
(D) 36 hours before the actual poll
Ans : (D)


25. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Parliament
(D) Chief Justice of India
Ans : (A)


26. The General Budget is presented in the parliament normally in the month of—
(A) January
(B) February
(C) March
(D) Last month of the year
Ans : (B)


27. Who is the signatory on the Indian currency notes in denomination of two rupees and above?
(A) Secretary, Reserve Bank of India
(B) Finance Secretary, Minister of Finance
(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India
(D) Finance Minister, Ministry of Finance
Ans : (C)


28. The monetary unit of Bangladesh is—
(A) Rupee
(B) Takka
(C) Rupiah
(D) Dollar
Ans : (B)


29. Sellers market denotes a situations where—
(A) Commodities are available at competitive rates
(B) Demand exceeds supply
(C) Supply exceeds demand
(D) Supply and demand are equal
Ans : (B)


30. Development means economic growth plus—
(A) Inflation
(B) Deflation
(C) Price stability
(D) Social change
Ans : (D)


31. The Abbreviation NAEP stands for—
(A) National Atomic Energy Planning
(B) National Adult education Programme
(C) National Authority on Engineering Projects
(D) Nuclear and Atomic Energy Project
Ans : (B)


32. The Abbreviations PSLV stands for—
(A) Polar Survey Landing Vehicle
(B) Polarised Source Laser Viewing
(C) Precise Source Locating Vision
(D) Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle
Ans : (D)


33. The term ‘epicentre’ is associated with—
(A) Earthquakes
(B) Tornadoes
(C) Cyclones
(D) Earth’s interior
Ans : (A)


34. Which of the following order is given to the plantes of solar system on the basis of their sizes?
(A) Jupiter, Saturn, Earth, Mercury
(B) Saturn, Jupiter, Mercury, Earth
(C) Mercury, Earth, Jupiter, Saturn
(D) Earth, Mercury, Saturn, Jupiter
Ans : (A)


35. The solar eclipse occurs when—
(A) the sun comes in between the moon and the earth
(B) the earth comes in the between the sun and the moon
(C) the moon comes in between the sun and the earth
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)


36. The removal of top soil by water or wind is called—
(A) Soil wash
(B) Soil erosion
(C) Soil creep
(D) Silting of soil
Ans : (B)


37. Which of the following is suitable for growing cotton?
(A) Sandy soil
(B) Clayey soil
(C) Black soil
(D) Alluvial soil
Ans : (C)


38. Bandipur Sanctuary is located in the State of—
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans : (C)


39. Largest State in terms of area, in India is—
(A) Assam
(B) Rajasthan
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Jammu and Kashmir
Ans : (C)


40. Koraput is related to which of the following Industry—
(A) Aeroplane
(B) Ship building
(C) Iron and steel
(D) Electric locomotives
Ans : (A)


41. Which of the following group of States is the largest producer of tea?
(A) West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh
(B) Karnataka, Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan
(C) Assam, Bihar, Jharkhand
(D) West Bengal, Assam, Karnataka
Ans : (D)


42. Which of these has the largest river basin?
(A) Brahmaputra
(B) Ganga
(C) Godavari
(D) Sutlej
Ans : (B)


43. The Indus Valley Civilization was famous for—
(A) Well-planned cities
(B) Efficient civil organization
(C) Development of Art and Architecture
(D) All of these
Ans : (D)


44. The Red Fort of Delhi was built by—
(A) Akbar
(B) Shahjehan
(C) Jahangir
(D) Sher Shah
Ans : (B)


45. The ancient name of the city of Patna is—
(A) Pataliputra
(B) Kanauj
(C) Kausambi
(D) Kapilavastu
Ans : (A)


46. The ancient kingdom of “Avanti” had its capital at—
(A) Vaishali
(B) Kausambi
(C) Ujjain
(D) Ayodhya
Ans : (C)


47. When did Vasco-da-Gama come to India—
(A) 1492
(B) 1498
(C) 1398
(D) 1542
Ans : (B)


48. The General who gave the firing order at Jallianwala Bag was—
(A) Tegart
(B) Cornwallis
(C) Simpson
(D) O. Dwyer
Ans : (D)


49. Gandhiji started Satyagraha in 1919 to protest against the—
(A) Rowlatt Act
(B) Salt Law
(C) Act of 1909
(D) Jallianwala Bagh Messacre
Ans : (A)


50. The Britishers come to India as traders and formed company named—
(A) Indo-British Company
(B) The Great Britain Company
(C) Eastern India Company
(D) East India Company
Ans : (D)


51. Mahatma Gandhi was born in—
(A) Wardha
(B) Porbander
(C) Sabarmati
(D) Ahmedabad
Ans : (B)


52. Who gave the slogan “You give me blood, I promise you freedom”?
(A) Bhagat Singh
(B) Chandra Shekhar Azad
(C) Subhash Chandra Bose
(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Ans : (D)


53. In which State is Jawahar Tunnel located?
(A) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Uttaranchal
(C) Goa
(D) Jammu and Kashmir
Ans : (D)


54. Where did the dance form “Mohini Attam” develop?
(A) Manipur
(B) Kerala
(C) Karnataka
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans : (B)


55. On selling three articles at the cost of four article, there will be profit of—
(A) 25%
(B) 100/3 %
(C) 75/2%
(D) 40%
Ans : (B)


56. By selling an article for Rs. 40, there is loss of 40%. By selling it for Rs. 80 there is—
(A) Gain of 20%
(B) Loss of 10%
(C) Loss of 20%
(D) Gain of 10%
Ans : (A)


57. A number consists of two digits whose sum is 8. If 8 is subtracted from the number, the digits interchange their places. The number is—
(A) 44
(B) 35
(C) 62
(D) 33
Ans : (D)


58. A horse is tied to a peg hammered at one of the corner of a rectangular grass field of 40 m by 24 m by a rope 14 m long. Over how much area of the field can the horse graze?
(A) 154 m2
(B) 308 m2
(C) 240 m2
(D) 480 m2
Ans : (A)


59. The sides of a triangle are in the ratio 3 : 5 : 7 and its perimeter is 30 cm. The length of the greatest side of the triangle in cm is—
(A) 6
(B) 10
(C) 14
(D) 16
Ans : (C)


60. The radius of a right circular cone is 3 cm and its height is 4 cm. The curved surface of the cone will be—
(A) 12 η sq. cm
(B) 15 η sq. cm
(C) 18 η sq. cm
(D) 21 η sq. cm
Ans : (B)


61. The steam engine was invented by—
(A) James Watt
(B) James Prescott Joule
(C) New Commen
(D) Isaac Newton
Ans : (A)


62. Who invented the telephone?
(A) Thomas Alva Edison
(B) Galileo
(C) Alexander Graham Bell
(D) G. Marconi
Ans : (C)


63. Albert Einsten was a famous—
(A) Physician
(B) Chemist
(C) Physicist
(D) Biologist
Ans : (C)


64. The fractions 7/11, 16/20, 21/22 when arranged in descending order is—
(A) 7/11, 16/20, 21/22
(B) 21/22, 7/11, 16/20
(C) 21/22, 16/20, 7/11
(D) 7/11, 21/22, 16/20
Ans : (C)


65. If 10% of a number is subtracted from it, the result is 1800. The number is—
(A) 1900
(B) 2000
(C) 2100
(D) 2140
Ans : (B)


66. The number is just preceding 9909 which is a perfect square is—
(A) 9908
(B) 9900
(C) 9899
(D) 9801
Ans : (D)


67. In banking ATM stands for—
(A) Automated Tallying Machine
(B) Automatic Teller Machine
(C) Automated Totalling Machine
(D) Automated Transaction of Money
Ans : (B)




68. Which amongst the following Abbreviations stands for organization related to Indian Defence forces?
(A) DOD
(B) RDSO
(C) DRDO
(D) DRES
Ans : (C)


69. Which amongst the following Abbreviations stands for organization related to Indian space programme?
(A) NASA
(B) ISO
(C) ISRO
(D) NSAT
Ans : (C)


70. The injection of anti-toxin is given to prevent—
(A) Tetanus
(B) Tuberculosis
(C) Typhoid
(D) Filariasis
Ans : (A)


71. Dental caries are due to—
(A) Viral infection
(B) Contaminated water
(C) Bacterial infection
(D) Hereditary causes
Ans : (C)


72. Palak leaves are rich source of—
(A) Vitamin A
(B) Iron
(C) Carotene
(D) Vitamin E
Ans : (B)


73. Which of these is not a mosquito borne disease?
(A) Dengue fever
(B) Malaria
(C) Filariasis
(D) Goitre
Ans : (D)


74. Oranges are rich source of—
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Fats
(C) Proteins
(D) Vitamins
Ans : (D)


75. Which acid is produced when milk gets sour?
(A) Tartaric acid
(B) Butyric acid
(C) Lactic acid
(D) Acetic acid
Ans : (C)


76. AIDS stands for—
(A) Acquired Immune Disease Syndrome
(B) Acquired Immunity Deficient Syndrome
(C) Acquired Immune Deficiency
(D) Acquired Infection Deficiency Syndrome
Ans : (C)


77. Stem cuttings are commonly used for re-growing—
(A) Cotton
(B) Banana
(C) Jute
(D) Sugar Cane
Ans : (D)


78. Persons with which blood group are called universal donors—
(A) AB
(B) A
(C) O
(D) B
Ans : (C)


79. Silk is produced by—
(A) Egg of silkworm
(B) Pupa of silkworm
(C) Larva of silkworm
(D) Insect itself
Ans : (C)


80. Which amongst the following is the train introduced by Indian Railways bringing travel by AC class withing the reach of a common man?
(A) August Kranti
(B) Jan Shatabdi
(C) Garib Rath
(D) Sampark Kranti
Ans : (C)


81. Approximately how many stations are there on the Indian Railway Network?
(A) 6000
(B) 7000
(C) 8000
(D) 9000
Ans : (B)


82. The Headquarters of North Western Railway is at—
(A) Abu Road
(B) Jodhpur
(C) Ajmer
(D) Jaipur
Ans : (D)


83. The new electric railway engines are manufactured in—
(A) Varanasi
(B) Chittaranjan
(C) Patiala
(D) Chennai
Ans : (C)


84. Which of the following is true in regard to Indian railway?
(A) It is the cheapest means of transportation
(B) The chief source of income is transportation of goods
(C) It is the only largest employer
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)


85. The highest gallantry award in India is—
(A) Ashok Chakra
(B) Paramvir Chakra
(C) Mahavir Chakra
(D) Param Vishista Chakra
Ans : (B)


86. Oscar prize is related to—
(A) Literature
(B) Films
(C) Science
(D) Music
Ans : (B)


87. Arjuna award is given for—
(A) Bravery in the battle field
(B) excellence in archery
(C) excellence in sports
(D) excellent service during emergency
Ans : (C)


88. The first Indian recipient of Nobel Prize in Literature is—
(A) Mother Teresa
(B) Rabindranath Tagore
(C) Sorijini Naidu
(D) C.V. Raman
Ans : (B)


89. Bismillah Khan is related to—
(A) Tabla
(B) Sarod
(C) Flute
(D) Shehnai
Ans : (D)


90. Who is the external affairs minister in the present union Cabinet?
(A) Shivraj Patil
(B) Pranab Mukherjee
(C) Priyaranjan Dasmunshi
(D) A.K. Antony
Ans : (B)


91. Who is the present Union Agriculture Minister?
(A) Raghuvansh Prasad Singh
(B) Manishankar Iyyer
(C) Sharad Parwar
(D) Kamalnath
Ans : (C)


92. Who is the present union Tourism and Culture Minister?
(A) Ambika Soni
(B) Kapil Sibbal
(C) Renuka Chaudhary
(D) Sushil Kumar Shinde
Ans : (A)


93. Who is the chairman of senior selection committee in BCCI?
(A) Sunil Gavaskar
(B) Dilip Vengasarkar
(C) Kapil Dev
(D) Chetan Chauhan
Ans : (B)


94. The assembly elections were held recently in two states namely—
(A) Gujarat and Andhra Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh and Himachal Pradesh
(C) Himachal Pradesh and Gujarat
(D) Andhra Pradesh and Himachal Pradesh
Ans : (C)


95. Thermometer is related to degree in the same way as clock is related to—
(A) Wall
(B) Tower
(C) Hour
(D) Cock
Ans : (C)


96. The headquarters of the United Nations Union is located at—
(A) Geneva
(B) New York
(C) Rome
(D) Washington
Ans : (B)


97. To work on mobile cell phone which of the following is/are required?
(A) Favourable handset
(B) Sim card
(C) Service provider network
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)


98. Find the root value of 36.1 / 102.4—
(A) 61 / 34
(B) 19 / 31
(C) 19 / 32
(D) 19 / 33
Ans : (C)


99. Which of the following keys of personal computer is not available in the key board of traditional typewriters?
(A) Tab
(B) Spacebar
(C) Enter
(D) Backspace
Ans : (C)


100. Which of the following words is not related to the functioning of Internet?
(A) www
(B) http
(C) e-mail
(D) All of the above
Ans : (D)

RRB Reference Books

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Travel and Tourism Management (Diploma) Exam 2010 General studies Solved paper

Travel and Tourism Management (Diploma) Exam 2010 General studies Solved paper

Travel and Tourism Management (Diploma) Examination question paper


1. Following the Maldives example, cabinet ministers of which of the following countries conducted their meeting at an unusual place recently to highlight the effects of global warming ?
(A) Tuvalu
(B) Sri Lanka
(C) South Africa
(D) Nepal
Ans : (D)


2. The United Nations (UN) has declared 2010 as the—
(A) International Year of Youth
(B) International Year of Renewable Energy
(C) International Year of Eco-Tourism
(D) International Year of Biodegradable Material
Ans : (A)


3. Ben Bernanke has been named ‘Person of the Year’ by the prestigious Time magazine. The current profile of Ben Bernanke is—
(A) Chairman, NASDAQ
(B) President, World Bank
(C) Chairman, US Federal Reserve
(D) Director-General, WTO
Ans : (C)


4. Cape Canaveral, the site from which space shuttles are launched, is located in the state—
(A) Florida
(B) Virginia
(C) North Carolina
(D) South Carolina
Ans : (A)


5. As per the State of Forest Report-2009, what fraction of India’s area is covered by forests ?
(A) 17•92%
(B) 21•02%
(C) 23•84%
(D) 25•96%
Ans : (C)




6. Who is the Secretary of the International Monetary Fund ?
(A) Indira Mathur
(B) AT Vashishtha
(C) Siddharth Tiwari
(D) None of these
Ans : (C)


7. Who is the first Goodwill Ambassador of the ‘Smile Train’, an international charity that provides free cleft lip and palate surgery to children in need ?
(A) Aishwarya Rai Bachchan
(B) Katrina Kaif
(C) Angelina Jolie
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)


8. Asia’s biggest solar power plant has been recently unveiled at—
(A) Japan
(B) Indonesia
(C) Malaysia
(D) Taiwan
Ans : (D)


9. India had recently landed its Moon Impact Probe on the Moon. Among the following countries, which one has landed such a probe on the Moon earlier ?
(A) Australia
(B) Canada
(C) China
(D) Japan
Ans : (D)


10. With which company did India’s largest IT firm Tata Consultancy Services sign a two year multimillion dollar deal recently ?
(A) Infosys
(B) SAP IG
(C) Singapore People’s Association
(D) Citigroup
Ans : (C)


11. Jamie Dwyer, recently crowned hockey’s World Player of the Year for a third time, belongs to—
(A) Germany
(B) England
(C) Netherlands
(D) Australia
Ans : (D)


12. Which among the following countries is the World Bank’s single largest borrower ?
(A) Pakistan
(B) India
(C) China
(D) Russia
Ans : (B)


13. Kaiane Aldorino who won the 2009 Miss World pageant recently held in Johannesburg, is from—
(A) South Africa
(B) Venezuela
(C) Columbia
(D) Gibraltar
Ans : (D)


14. The group of nations presently known as G-8 first started as G-7. Which country from among the following was not one of the them ?
(A) Canada
(B) Italy
(C) Japan
(D) Russia
Ans : (D)


15. CERN, the organisation that conducted the Large Hadren Collider Experiment in Geneva recently, is the—
(A) European Space Agency
(B) European Organisation for Nuclear Research
(C) International Atomic Energy Agency
(D) National Aeronautics and Space Administration
Ans : (B)


16. Reliance Communication has signed an agreement with ……offering Windows Mobile Solutions on its wireless network.
(A) Rediffmail.com
(B) Microsoft
(C) Google
(D) Gmail.com
Ans : (B)


17. Which of the following teams was defeated by India to mark its 100th Test match victory in cricket ?
(A) New Zealand
(B) Australia
(C) Bangladesh
(D) Sri Lanka
Ans : (D)


18. Who is the first Indian to head Amnesty International in its 50-year history ?
(A) Pramod Bhasin
(B) Salil Shetty
(C) G.R. Madhavan
(D) C.K. Roy
Ans : (B)


19. Lionel Messi, the footballer who plays for Barcelona club, and won the FIFA World Player of the Year Award for 2009, belongs to which country ?
(A) Brazil
(B) Italy
(C) Argentina
(D) Germany
Ans : (C)


20. Recently, which of the following was included in the UNESCO’s World Heritage list ?
(A) Dilwara Temple
(B) Kalka-Shimla Railway
(C) Bhiterkanika Mangrove Area
(D) Visakhapatnam to Araku Valley railway line
Ans : (B)


21. The Government of India has granted approval in principle to SBI to merge one more of its associate banks after State Bank of Saurashtra. This second associate bank of SBI to be merged with it is—
(A) State Bank of Travancore
(B) State Bank of Indore
(C) State Bank of Patiala
(D) State Bank of Hyderabad
Ans : (B)


22. Recently which of the following versions of Windows was launched by Microsoft ?
(A) Windows 7
(B) Windows 8
(C) Windows 9
(D) Windows 10
Ans : (A)


23. Which is the most popular e-mail service among Indians according to Online Audience Measurement and Analytics Platform ?
(A) G-mail
(B) Yahoo
(C) Google
(D) Rediffmail
Ans : (D)


24. Name the Jammu & Kashmir ‘braveheart’ who killed a terrorist and was recently appointed as a Special Police Officer in the Jammu-Kashmir police force.
(A) Salma Khan
(B) Firdaus Ahmed
(C) Rukhsana Kausar
(D) Shahana Azmi
Ans : (C)


25. Which of the following statements regarding Operation Flood is/are correct ?
1. Operation Flood is the world’s largest Integrated Dairy Development Programme.
2. Dr. Verghese Kurien is the pioneer of Operation Flood.
3. Operation Flood was started in 1970 by Amul Dairy.
(A) 1 Only
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 2 and 3
(D) All of the above
Ans : (B)


26. Which pharmaceutical company has been given permission by the Government of India to conduct H1N1 vaccine trials on humans ?
(A) Bharat Biotech
(B) Panacea Pharmaceuticals
(C) Serum Institute of India
(D) Zydus Cadila
Ans : (D)


27. Which Indian State Government made voting compulsory for its Municipal Corporation elections ?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Kerala
(C) Karnataka
(D) Gujarat
Ans : (D)


28. Due to the efforts of which Member of Parliament (MP), can Indian citizens now fly the National Flag even at night ?
(A) Jyotraditya Scindia
(B) Naveen Jindal
(C) Rahul Gandhi
(D) None of these
Ans : (B)


29. The Commonwealth Games 2010 being held in New Delhi is the …… edition of this international event.
(A) XX
(B) XIX
(C) XXI
(D) XXII
Ans : (B)


30. What is the expected growth (in %) in international tourist arrivals during 2010, as per the forecast by UNWTO ?
(A) 3 – 4
(B) 5 – 6
(C) 7 – 8
(D) 9 – 10
Ans : (A)


31. The 13th Meeting of the ASEAN Tourism Ministers was held in the month of—
(A) January 2010
(B) February 2010
(C) March 2010
(D) December 2010
Ans : (A)


32. Air India has entered into partnership with which organisation to improve operational efficiencies in key airline functions and become more cost-efficient ?
(A) Sabre Airline Solutions
(B) Airline Solutions Group
(C) Amadeus Airlines
(D) Kale Consultants Limited
Ans : (A)


33. Which state of India has the highest population density ?
(A) Bihar
(B) Kerala
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) None of these
Ans : (A)


34. Which is the highest honour amongst the Padma Awards conferred on eminent personalities by the Government of India every year ?
(A) Padma Vibhushan
(B) Padma Bhushan
(C) Padma Sri
(D) None of these
Ans : (D)


35. Which country will be hosting the Winter Olympics 2014 ?
(A) America
(B) Russia
(C) Germany
(D) England
Ans : (B)


36. The Naina Devi Temple is located in which state of India ?
(A) Gujarat
(B) Jammu & Kashmir
(C) Himachal Pradesh
(D) Haryana
Ans : (C)


37. Which of the following SLVs carried the Chandrayaan-I on its voyage to the moon ?
(A) PSLV-C12
(B) PSLV-12
(C) PSLV-C11
(D) PSLV-C10
Ans : (C)


38. Which of the following countries is planning to launch a Satellite to study the Sun ?
(A) USA
(B) India
(C) Russia
(D) China
Ans : (B)


39. Who won the ICC Women’s Cricket World Cup 2009 ?
(A) India
(B) England
(C) New Zealand
(D) Australia
Ans : (B)


40. Who is the only Indian sportswoman to win a medal for the country at the Olympics ?
(A) P.T. Usha
(B) Karanam Malleswari
(C) Sania Mirza
(D) Saina Nehwal
Ans : (B)

CDAC Sample Question Paper

CDAC Sample Question Paper

CDAC Previous Year Question Paper


1.The programming language that was designed for specifying algorithm
Address
ASCII
ALGOL
None of these options


2. _____ contains the addresses of all the records according to the contents of the field designed as the record key.
Index<——ans
Subscript
Array
File


3. _________ symbol is used for Processing of data.
Oval
Parallelogram<——ans
Rectangle
Diamond


4. __________ is the analysis tool used for planning program logic
Protocol
None of these options
PROLOG
Pseudocode


5. Machine language has two part format the first part is__________ and the second part is __________
OPCODE,OPERAND<——ans
OPERAND,OPCODE
DATA CODE,OPERAND
OPERAND,CODEOP


6. Language Primarily used for internet-based applications
ADA
C++
JAVA;——ans
FORTRAN


7. _________ is a point at which the debugger stops during program execution and awaits a further command.
Memory Dump
Watch point<——ans
Break point
None of these options

8. ________do not contain any program logic and are ignored by the language Processor
Protocol
Virus
Comment
None of these options


9. The component of data base management system is ________
Data definition Language
Data manipulation Language
Data definition Language and Data manipulation Language
None of these options


10. The quality of Algorithm is judged on the basis of_________
Time requirement
Memory Requirement
Accuracy of solution
All of these options<——ans


11. Advantages of using flow charts is
Effective Analysis
Efficient Coding
Time consuming
Effective Analysis and Efficient Coding<—–ans
Programming in C


12. The Real constants in C can be expressed in which of the following forms
Fractional form only
Exponential form only
ASCII form only
Both Fractional and Exponential forms<——ans


13. The program, which translates high-level program into its equivalent machine language program, is called
Transformer
Language processor
Converter
None of these options<——ans<!–[if !supportEmptyParas]–>


14. Consider the following statements. i.Multiplication associates left to right ii.Division associates left to right
iii.Unary Minus associates right to left
iv.subtraction associates left to right All are true <——ans
only i and ii are true
all are false
only iii and iv are true


15. What will be the value of variable a in the following code?
unsigned char a;
a = 0xFF + 1;
printf("%d", a);
0xFF
0×100
0 <——ans
0×0


16. What is the output of the following program?
#include <stdio.h>
void main()
{
printf("\n10!=9 : %5d",10!=9);
}
1<——ans
0
Error
None of these options

17. #include<stdio.h>
void main()
{
int x=10;
(x<0)?(int a =100):(int a =1000);
printf(" %d",a);
}
Error<——ans
1000
100
None of these options


18. Which of the following shows the correct hierarchy of arithmetic operations in C
(), **, * or /, + or –
(), **, *, /, +, –
(), **, /, *, +, –
(), / or *, – or + <—–Ans


19. What is the output of the following code?
#include<stdio.h>
void main()
{
int a=14;
a += 7;
a -= 5;
a *= 7;
printf("\n%d",a);
}
112<——ans
98
89
None of these options


20. What is the output of the following code? #include<stdio.h>
#define T t
void main()
{
char T = `T`;
printf("\n%c\t%c\n",T,t);
}
Error
T t
T T
t t

EMPLOYEES STATE INSURANCE CORPORATION ESIC Solved Question Paper

EMPLOYEES STATE INSURANCE CORPORATION ESIC Solved Question Paper


1. A prepaid service 'TRUMP' was launched by
(A) VSNL
(B) MTNL
(C) Bharati Cellular Ltd.
(D) None of these
ANS- B


2. Which of the following countries won highest gold medals in 27th Olympics ?
(A) Russia
(B) USA
(C) aUSTRALIA
(D) china
ANS- B


3. Which of the following languages belong to the Austric Group ?
(A) Marathi
(B) Laddakhi
(C) Khasi
(D) Tamil
ANS- C


4. Who did not oppose the attack of the USA and her allies on Iraq in March 2003 ?
(A) France
(B) India
(C) Turkey
(D) Pakistan
ANS- A


5. SMS is a service associated with :
(A) E-Mail
(B) Cellular Phones
(C) Internet Surfing
(D) Fax Transmission
ANS- B


6. What was the original Nationality of Annie Besant ?
(A) British
(B) Irish
(C) French
(D) American
ANS- B


7. Which foreign country is closest to Andman Island ?
(A) Sri Lanka
(B) Myanmar
(C) Indonesia
(D) Bangladesh
ANS- B


8. Which country is not a member of G-8 ?
(A) Italy
(B) Canada
(C) Germany
(D) Australia
ANS- D


9. The language spoken by the largest number of people in the world is :
(A) Spanish
(B) English
(C) French
(D) Mandaren
ANS- D


10. Wich of the following is not a Negotiable Instrument ?
(A) Cheque
(B) Promissory note
(C) Bill of exchange
(D) Receipt of fixed deposit
ANS- D


11. Which of the following is nat a part of the exportable item from India ?
(A) Tea
(B) Shoes
(C) Steel
(D) Milk
ANS- D


12. GATT was founded in the year :
(A) 1940
(B) 1942
(C) 1947
(D) 1960
ANS- C
13. Who among the following has not been awarded death sentence in the case of attack on the Indian Parliament ?
(A) Mohammed Afzal
(B) SAR Geelani
(C) Shaukat Hussain Guru
(D) Afshan Guru
ANS- D
14. Stock Market are regulated by :
(A) RBI
(B) SEBI
(C) The ministry of finance
(D) None of these
ANS- B


15. No smoking is a :
(A) Rule
(B) Procedure
(C) Plan
(D) Policy
ANS- A


16. In raw Jute and Jute goods production, India ranks at number :
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
ANS- A


17. National bird is observed on :
(A) October 12
(B) November 12
(C) December 13
(D) December 18
ANS- B


18. Famous Food and Drug store "JUSCO" belongs to :
(A) Britain
(B) Netherland
(C) Japan
(D) Switzerland
ANS- C


19. The words "Satyamave Jayate" are taken from :
(A) Gita
(B) Garur Puran
(C) Mundaka Upnishad
(D) Mahabharat
ANS- C
20. Which of the following is not a component of revenue expenditure :
(A) Interest
(B) Public Administration
(C) Subsidies
(D) Buying of capital equipment
ANS- B
21. Sweat Glands occure in greatest niumber in the skin of :
(A) Forehead
(B) Armpits
(C) Back
(D) Plam of hand
ANS- B
22. Which of the following is a flightless bird ?
(A) Emu
(B) Hen
(C) Swan
(D) None of these
ANS- A
23. The bats are able to fly in dark since their wings produce :
(A) Sound waves
(B) Ultrasonic Waves
(C) Infra red rays
(D) Ultraviolet rays
ANS- B
24. Which of the following diseases is inheritable ?
(A) Leukemia
(B) Colour Blindness
(C) Maligency
(D) Hepatites
ANS- B
25. Honey has the largest percentage of :
(A) Water
(B) Starch
(C) Glucose
(D) Sucrose
ANS- D
26 Which of the following is a mixed fertilizer ?
(A) Urea
(B) Ammonium
(C) CAM
(D) NPK
ANS- D
27. Which of the following is an exception to cell theory ?
(A) Bacteria
(B) Fungi
(C) Virus
(D) Lichens
ANS- C
28. Light emmited by sun reaches Earth in :
(A) 1 second
(B) 10 seconds
(C) 13 seconds
(D) 8 seconds
ANS - D
29. Which of the following fuels causes minimum environmental pollution ?
(A) Diesel
(B) Kerosene
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Coal
ANS- C
30. The average salt content of sea water is :
(A) 1.0 %
(B) 3.5 %
(C) 10.0 %
(D) 12.3 %
ANS- B


31. Blood grouping was discovered by :
(A) William Harvey
(B) Landsteinar
(C) Robert Coach
(D) Luis Pasteur
ANS- B


32. The extreme form of Ahinsa or non-violence is practiced is :
(A) Buddhism
(B) Hinduism
(C) Jainism
(D) None of these
ANS- C


33. The great Hindu Law giver was :
(A) Kapil
(B) Banbatta
(C) Kautilya
(D) Mnau
ANS- D
34. Chandragupta Maurya spent his last days at :
(A) Ujjain
(B) Nalanda
(C) Shravanbela gola
(D) Patna
ANS- C
35. The court language of Mughals was :
(A) Arabic
(B) Hindi
(C) Persian
(D) Urdu
ANS- C
36. The Dutch first established their hold in India in 1605 at :
(A) Goa
(B) Surat
(C) Gujarat
(D) Masulipatnam
ANS- D
37. The English weekly edited by :
(A) Kesari
(B) Comrade
(C) Bombay Chronicle
(D) Young India
ANS- D
38. Who among the following was a prominent officer of Azad Hind Fauz ?
(A) Aruna Asaf Ali
(B) Shahnawaz Khan
(C) Dr. M.A.A nsari
(D) Ghaffar Khan
ANS- B


39. Who is the longest serving Chief Minister in India ?
(A) Bhajan Lal
(B) Chimanbhai Patel
(C) Jyoti Basu
(D) Hiteshwar Saikia
ANS- C


40. Among the following which is the largest Island in the world ?
(A) England
(B) Japan
(C) Borneo
(D) New Guinea
ANS- B


41. Which of the following is the Black Mountain ?
(A) Andes
(B) Alps
(C) Rocky Mountain
(D) Vosges
ANS- C


42. Which of the following is a deepest lake ?
(A) Lake Victoria
(B) Lake Caspian
(C) Lake Superior
(D) Lake Baikal
ANS- D


43. The original home of the Gyosies was :
(A) Russia
(B) Persia
(C) India
(D) Egypt
ANS- D


44. Dry farming in India is extensively practised in :
(A) Kanara plains
(B) Deccan region
(C) Coromandel Plains
(D) Punjab Plains
ANS- B


45. Deepest mine in India is located at ?
(A) Anantpur
(B) Bellary
(C) Kolar
(D) Hspet
ANS- C


46. At present India's largest mineral resource is
(A) Copper
(B) Coal
(C) Iron-ore
(D) None of these
ANS- B


47. The length of the Konkan Railway is :
(A) 560 kms
(B) 660 kms
(C) 760 kms
(D) 860 kms
ANS- C


48. Which of the following is known as Queen of Arabian Sea ?
(A) Cochin
(B) Trivendrum
(C) Aalleppey
(D) Mangalore
ANS- A
49. Who wrote the famous book "We The People" ?
(A) JRD TATA
(B) Khushwant Singh
(C) T.N.Kaul
(D) Nana Palkhivala
ANS- D


50. MS Kim Campbell is the first woman prime minister of :
(A) Congo
(B) Portugal
(C) Philippines
(D) Canada

FCI Management Trainee Previous Year Solved Paper

FCI Management Trainee Previous Year Solved Paper

FCI Management Trainee Reasoning Solved Paper


1. What should come in the place of (?) in the given series?
ACE, FGH, ?, PON
(A) KKK
(B) JKI
(C) HJH
(D) IKL
Ans. (A)


2. Typist : Typewriter : : Writer: ?
(A) Script
(B) Pen
(C) Paper
(D) Book
Ans. (B)


3. Paint: Artist : : Wood: ?
(A) Furniture
(B) Forest
(C) Fire
(D) Carpenter
Ans. (D)


4. acme : mace :: alga: ?
(A) glaa
(B) gaal
(C) laga
(D) gala
Ans. (D)


5. EIGHTY : GIEYTH : : OUTPUT:?
(A) UTOPTU
(B) UOTUPT
(C) TUOUTP
(D) TUOTUP
Ans. (D)


6. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is related to—
(A) Teacher
(B) School
(C) Student
(D) Tuition
Ans. (C)


7. Fill in the missing letter in the following series—
S, V, Y, B, ?
(A) C
(B) D
(C) E
(D)G
Ans. (C)


8. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?
3, 8, 6, 14, ?, 20
(A) 11
(B) 10
(C) 8
(D) 9
Ans. (D)


9. Select the correct option in place of the question mark.
AOP, CQR, EST, GUV, ?
(A) IYZ
(B) HWX
(C) IWX
(D) JWX
Ans. (C)


10. What should come in the place of question mark in the following series?
1, 4, 9, 25, 36, ?
(A) 48
(C) 52
(B) 49
(D) 56
Ans. (B)


Directions—(Q. 11 to 14): Select the one which is different from the other three.
11. (A) Bokaro
(B) Jamshedpur
(C) Bhilai
(D) Agra
Ans. (D)


12. (A) January
(B) February
(C) July
(D) December
Ans. (B)


13. (A) Bible
(B) Panchsheel
(C) Geeta
(D) Quran
Ans. (B)


14. (A) Star
(B) Sun
(C) Sky
(D) Moon
Ans. (C)


Directions—(Q. 15 to 17): based on alphabets.
15. If the sequence of the alphabets is reversed which of the following would be the 14th letter from your left?
(A) N
(B) L
(C) O
(D) None of these
Ans. (D)


16. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter, which is 12th from the left?
(A) V
(B) T
(C) W
(D) Y
Ans. (B)
17. Which letter is the 8th letter to the right of the letter which is 10th to the left of the last but one letter from the right?
(A) V
(B) X
(C) W
(D) I
Ans. (C)


Directions—(Q. 18 to 23) Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
18. (A) Green
(B) Red
(C) Colour
(D) Orange
Ans. (C)


19. (A) Rabbit
(B) Crocodile
(C) Earthworm
(D) Snail
Ans. (A)


20. (A) Polo
(B) Chess
(C) Ludo
(D) Carrom
Ans. (A)


21. (A) Sun
(B) Universe
(C) Moon
(D) Star
Ans. (B)


22. (A) Cheese
(B) Milk
(C) Curd
(D) Ghee
Ans. (B)


23. (A) Carrot
(B) Radish
(C) Potato
(D) Brinjal
Ans. (D)
24. In a certain code ‘CONTRIBUTOR’ is written as ‘RTNOCIROTUB’. How is ‘prohibition’ written in that code?
(A) NOITIBIHORP
(B) IHORPBITION
(C) ITIONBIHOTP
(D) IHORPBNOITI
Ans. (D)
25. If ‘CAT’ and ‘BOAT’ are written as XZG and ‘YLZG’ respectively in a code language how is ‘EGG’ to be written in the same language?
(A) VSS
(B) URR
(C) VTT
(D) UTF
Ans. (C)


26. In a code language SINGER is written as AIBCED then GINGER will be written in the same code as—
(A) CBIECD
(B) CIBCED
(C) CBICED
(D) CIBECD
Ans. (B)


27. If BAT is coded as 283, CAT is coded as 383 and ARE is coded as 801, then the code for BETTER is—
(A) 213310
(B) 213301
(C) 123301
(D) 012334
Ans. (A)


28. If water is called black, black is called tree, tree is called blue, blue is called rain, rain is called pink and pink is called fish in a certain language then what is the colour of sky called in that language?
(A) Blue
(B) Fish
(C) Rain
(D) Pink
Ans. (C)


29. A man walks 3 km northwards and then turns left and goes 2 km. He again turns left and goes 3 km. He turns right and walks straight. In which direction he is walking now?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (B)


30. One morning after sunrise Vikram and Shailesh were standing in a lawn with their back towards each other. Vikram’s shadow fell exactly towards left-hand side. Which direction Shailesh was facing?
(A) East
(B) West
(C) North
(D) South
Ans. (D)


31. Nageena is taller than Pushpa but not as tall as Manish. Rama is taller than Namita but not as tall as Pushpa. Who among them is the tallest?
(A) Manish
(B) Pushpa
(C) Namita
(D) Nageena
Ans. (A)


32. In an examination Raj got more marks than Moti but not as many as Meena. Meena got more marks than Ganesh and Rupali. Ganesh got less marks than Moti but his marks are not the lowest in the group. Who is second in the descending order of marks?
(A) Meena
(B) Rupali
(C) Raj
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)


33. Pointing to a photograph of a girl, Rajan said “She has no sister or daughter but her mother is the only daughter of my mother.” How is the girl in the photograph related with Rajan’s mother?
(A) Sister in law
(B) Grand daughter
(C) Daughter in law
(D) None of these
Ans. (B)
34. If Amit’ s father is Billoo’ s father’s only son and Billoo has neither a brother nor a daughter. What is the relationship between Amit and Billoo?
(A) Uncle—Nephew
(B) Father—Daughter
(C) Father—Son
(D) Grandfather—Grandson
Ans. (C)
35. An application was received by inward clerk in the afternoon of a weekday. Next day he forwarded it to the table of the senior clerk, who was on leave that day. The senior clerk next day evening put up the application to the desk officer. Desk officer studied the application and disposed off the matter on the same day, i.e., Friday. Which day the application was received by the inward clerk?
(A) Tuesday
(B) Earlier week’s Saturday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Monday
Ans. (C)
36. Flight to Mumbai leaves every 5 hours. At the information counter I learnt that the flight took off 25 minutes before. If the time now is 10 : 45 a.m., what is the time for the next flight?
(A) 2 : 20 a.m.
(B) 3 : 30 a.m.
(C) 3 : 55 p.m.
(D) 3 : 20 p.m.
Ans. (D)
37. Babloo ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the bottom among those who passed an examination. 6 boys did not participate in the competition and 5 failed in the examination. How many boys were there in the class?
(A) 44
(B) 40
(C) 50
(D) 55
Ans. (D)
38. Indra is 7th from the left and Jaya is 5th from the right. When they interchange their position Jaya becomes 19th from the right. What is Indra’s position from the left?
(A) 21st
(B) 19th
(C) 23rd
(D) 20th
Ans. (D)


39. How many 5’s are in the following sequence of numbers which are immediately preceded by 7?
8 9 5 3 2 5 3 8 5 5 6 8 7 3 3 5 7 7 5 3 6 5 3 3 5 7 3 8
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (A)
40. How many 8’s are there in the following sequence which are immediately preceded by 6 but not immediately followed by 5?
6 8 5 7 8 5 4 3 6 8 1 9 8 5 4 6 8 2 9 6 8 1 3 6 8 5 3 6
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four
Ans. (C)


41. If EARTHQUAKE is coded as MOGPENJOSM then EQUATE will be coded as—
(A) MENOPM
(B) MENOMP
(C) NJOGPM
(D) MNJOPM
Ans. (D)




42. If COUNTRY is coded in certain way as EMWLVPA, ELECTORATE will be coded
in the same manner as—
(A) CJCEFQPYWC
(B) CJGERQTYVG
(C) CNCERQPCRG
(D) GJGAVMTYVC
Ans. (D)
43. ‘Air’ is to ‘Bird’ as ‘Water’ is to ……..
(A) Drink
(B) Fish
(C) Wash
(D) Swim
Ans. (B)


44. ‘Pencil’ is to ‘Write’ as ‘Knife’ is to ………
(A) Injure
(B) Peel
(C) Prick
(D) Attack
Ans. (B)
45. Mohan is 18th from either end of a row of boys ? How many boys are there in that row?
(A) 26
(B) 32
(C) 24
(D) 35
Ans. (D)


46. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls, Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank?
(A) 26
(B) 12
(C) 10
(D) 33
Ans. (B)


47. ‘Soldier’ is related to ‘Army’ in the same way as ‘Pupil’ is related to …….
(A) Education
(B) Teacher
(C) Student
(D) Class
Ans. (D)


48. ‘Kilogram’ is related to ‘Quintal’ in the same way as ‘Paisa’ is related to………
(A) Coin
(B) Money
(C) Cheque
(D) Rupee
Ans. (D)


49. ‘Stammering’ is to ‘Speech’ as Deafness is to …………
(A) Ear
(B) Hearing
(C) Noise
(D) Commotion
Ans. (B)


50. ‘Guilt’ is to ‘Past’ as ‘Hope’ is to …………
(A) Present
(B) Future
(C) Today
(D) Hopeless
Ans. (B)


FCI Previous Year solved papers Free download of FCI Question Papers FCI 2011 Model Papers FCI Management Trainee Previous Year Papers FCI Management Trainee 2011
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Uttar Pradesh B.Ed Joint Entrance Exam 2010 English Solved Question Paper

Uttar Pradesh B.Ed Joint Entrance Exam 2010 English Solved Question Paper

UP B.Ed Joint Entrance Exam  2010 English Solved paper

English Language


Directions—(Q. 51–55) In these questions, sentences are given with blanks to be filled in with an appropriate words four alternatives are suggested for each question. Choose the correct alternative out of the four and indicate the correct sequence.


51. Tourists always enjoyed .................... the setting sun in the Darjeeling hills.
(A) to watch
(B) watching
(C) in seeing
(D) seeing
Ans : (B)


52. The speaker did not properly space out his speech, but went on .......... one point only.
(A) stressing
(B) avoiding
(C) devoting
(D) decrying
Ans : (A)


53. A ............... of Japanese artists stepped off the coach amidst a warm welcome.
(A) troop
(B) troupe
(C) band
(D) gang
Ans : (B)




54. Today students should be reconciled .............. the way things are changing.
(A) with
(B) to
(C) for
(D) at
Ans : (A)


55. Ramappa ........... as the Mayor of the town and he will assume charge this Friday.
(A) elects
(B) elected
(C) is elected
(D) is electing
Ans : (C)


Directions—(Q. 56—60) In these questions, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of a sentence has an error and indicate corresponding to the appropriate letter (A, B, C). If there is no error, indicate corresponding to (D).


56. He ate (A) / nothing (B) / since yesterday. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)


57. An experimental vaccine (A) / has brought (B) / glimmer of hope for malarial researcher. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)


58. After making me wait for two agonising hours (A) / the great man called me in (B) / and asked me what do I want. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (A)


59. The ebb and flow of the tides (A) / are (B) / now understood. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (B)


60. The green paint on the wall (A) / provides a suitable contrast (B) / with the yellow doors. (C) No error (D)
Ans : (C)


Directions—(Q. 61–65) Group of four words are given. In each group one word is wrongly spelt. Find the wrongly spelt word.


61. (A) Submitted
(B) Admitted
(C) Comitted
(D) Omitted
Ans : (C)


62. (A) Brillient
(B) Valiant
(C) Salient
(D) Radiant
Ans : (A)


63. (A) Recuperate
(B) Regulate
(C) Reinstate
(D) Seperate
Ans : (D)


64. (A) Cease
(B) Seize
(C) Beseige
(D) Beseech
Ans : (C)


65. (A) Carrier
(B) Carreer
(C) Courier
(D) Barrier
Ans : (B)


Directions—(Q. 66–70) Out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word and indicate the answer.


66. Censure
(A) Criticise
(B) Appreciate
(C) Blame
(D) Abuse
Ans : (A)


67. Diligent
(A) Industrious
(B) Indifferent
(C) Intelligent
(D) Energetic
Ans : (A)


68. Contemplation
(A) Consideration
(B) Meditation
(C) Deliberation
(D) Speculation
Ans : (B)


69. Adulation
(A) Duration
(B) Argument
(C) Flattery
(D) Institution
Ans : (C)


70. Quiver
(A) Quarrel
(B) Quicken
(C) Waver
(D) Tremble
Ans : (D)


Directions—(Q. 71–75) Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word and choose the correct alternative.


71. ANIMOSITY
(A) Love
(B) Lust
(C) Luck
(D) Loss
Ans : (A)


72. ALTERCATION
(A) Explanation
(B) Challenge
(C) Compromise
(D) Opposition
Ans : (C)


73. COAX
(A) Dull
(B) Dissuade
(C) Active
(D) Speed
Ans : (B)


74. ERUDITE
(A) Educated
(B) Unscholarly
(C) Scholarly
(D) Possessive
Ans : (B)


75. AFFLUENT
(A) High
(B) Poor
(C) Rare
(D) Fluent
Ans : (B)


Directions—(Q. 76–80) In these questions, four alternatives are given for the idiom/phrase bold in the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/phrase and indicate the correct answer.


76. A few days before his death, he made a clean breast of everything.
(A) Confessed
(B) Took off his shirt
(C) Suffered
(D) Spoke ill
Ans : (A)


77. I am done for.
(A) Ruined
(B) Rewarded
(C) Answered
(D) Questioned
Ans : (A)


78. For a healthy and lasting friendship one must be on the level.
(A) Equally rich
(B) Mentally compatible
(C) Honest and sincere
(D) Ready for sacrifices
Ans : (A)


79. The foolish young man soon made ducks and drakes of the vast property his father left him.
(A) Squandered
(B) Distributed
(C) Spent
(D) Gave in charity
Ans : (A)


80. All his ventures went to the winds.
(A) Dissipated
(B) Spread all over
(C) Got speed of the winds
(D) Became well-known
Ans : (A)


Directions—(Q. 81–90) In these questions, some of the words have been left out. First read the passage over and try to understand what it is about. Then fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Indicate your correct answer—


Passage
Happy is the man who …(81)… the habit of reading when he is young. He has secured a lifelong source of …(82)…, instruction and inspiration. So long as he has his beloved books he need …(83)… feel lonely. He always has a pleasant …(84)… of leisure moments. He is the …(85)… of wealth more precious than gold. …(86)… indeed is the man who does not read and …(87)… is his life. …(88)… gives the highest kind of pleasure. When we are …(89)… it is a healthy recreation to lose …(90)… in the company of books.


81. (A) owns
(B) buys
(C) acquires
(D) takes
Ans : (C)


82. (A) pleasure
(B) satisfaction
(C) sadness
(D) dejection
Ans : (A)


83. (A) always
(B) ever
(C) sometimes
(D) never
Ans : (D)


84. (A) source
(B) occupation
(C) possession
(D) relief
Ans : (A)


85. (A) possessor
(B) loser
(C) master
(D) heir
Ans : (A)


86. (A) rich
(B) lucky
(C) poor
(D) bad
Ans : (C)


87. (A) full
(B) vacuum
(C) empty
(D) deep
Ans : (C)


88. (A) writing
(B) speaking
(C) listening
(D) reading
Ans : (D)


89. (A) weak
(B) fresh
(C) sick
(D) tired
Ans : (C)


90. (A) himself
(B) ourselves
(C) yourselves
(D) themselves
Ans : (B)


Directions—(Q. 91–95) In these questions, you have one brief passage with 5 questions following the passage. Read the passage carefully and choose the best answer-each question out of the four alternatives and indicate the correct answer.


Passage
The public sector banks are witnessing in India a period of transition and are at crossroads, where they without giving up social responsibility, should also remain healthy. They need to undertake risky experiments. yet perform it innovatively in a way it does not fail. They should make forays into new areas which are rarely tread by them and lose no emerging opportunities. It should be understood that absence of any bad advance is no sign of efficient banking system. It only indicates immense. conservatism. However this is no guarantee for profit. There should be a balance between liquidity and risk. Past sins should be forgotten. Novel and pragmatic techniques should be adopted without which banks would be in danger.


91. What according to the author, are the public sector banks witnessing ?
(A) A period of profit
(B) A period of change
(C) A period of certainty
(D) A loss-making period
Ans : (B)


92. In addition to being socially responsible, what does the author want the banks to be ?
(A) Customer-friendly
(B) Able to attract foreign investors
(C) Financially healthy
(D) Senseless risk-takers
Ans : (C)


93. How can the banks take risks without risking a failure ?
(A) By being innovative
(B) By soliciting the help of the government
(C) By being financially healthy
(D) By being conservative
Ans : (A)


94. What does the absence of any bad advance indicate ?
(A) A penchant for risks
(B) Immense conservatism
(C) Financial independence
(D) A deep-seated social commitment
Ans : (D)


95. What would happen if novel and pragmatic techniques are ignored ?
(A) Will put the banks in danger
(B) Will undermine the banks’ social commitment
(C) Will reveal the untapped talent
(D) Will result in inefficient portfolio management
Ans : (A)


Directions—(Q. 96–100) In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the given words/sentence and indicate the appropriate answer.


96. Simple, fast-spreading plant without flowers or leaves, which can often cause disease—
(A) Bacteria
(B) Amoeba
(C) Virus
(D) Fungus
Ans : (A)


97. One who is greedy—
(A) Voracious
(B) Avaricious
(C) Carnivorous
(D) Omnivorous
Ans : (B)


98. An area of land that is controlled by a ruler—
(A) Colony
(B) Dominion
(C) County
(D) Municipality
Ans : (B)


99. A place where Jews worship according to their religion—
(A) Cathedral
(B) Synagogue
(C) Chapel
(D) Demagogue
Ans : (B)


100. One who is indifferent to pleasure and pain—
(A) Ascetic
(B) Esoteric
(C) Stoic
(D) Sceptical
Ans : (C)

Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test GPAT 2010 Solved Question Paper

Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test GPAT 2010 Solved Question Paper

 Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test 2010 Question Paper


Q.l The vitamin essential in tissue culture medium is
(A) Pyridoxine
(B) Thiamine
(C) Nicotinic acid
(D) Inositol
Ans. B


Q.2 Gingkgo biloba is used for its
(A) Expectorant activity (B) Lipid lowering activity
(C) PAF antagonistic activity (D)Antidepressant activity
Ans. C


Q.3 The amount of barbaloin present in Aloe vera is
(A) 1% (B) 3.5-4% (c) 1-1.5% (D) 2-2.5%
Ans. B


Q.4 Sildenafil is used for treatment of one of the following disorders :
(A) Systolic hypertension (B) Unstable angina
(C) Pulmonary hypertension (D) Hypertension due to eclampsia
Ans. C


Q.5 Cardiac glycosides have the following configuration in the aglycone part of the steroid nucleus :
(A) 5a, 1 4 a - (B) 5a, 14ß- (C) 5ß, 1 4 a - (D) 5ß,14ß-
Ans. D


Q.6 Quassia wood is adulterated with
(A) Brucea antidysentrica (B) Cassia angustifoila
C) Cinnamomum zeylanicum (D) Cephaelis ipecacuanaha
Ans. B


Q.7 Eugenol is present in
(A) Fennel (B) Tulsi (C) Cardamom (D) Coriander
Ans. B


Q.8 Which one of the following drugs is prescribed for the treatment of Philadelphia chromosome positive
patients with Chronic myeloid Leukemia?
(A) Pentostatin (B) Methotrexate
(C) Imatinib (D) L-Asparaginase
Ans. C


Q.9 Which of the following monoclonal antibodies is prescribed for patients with non-Hodgkin's
Lymphoma?
(A) Infliximab (B) Abciximab (C) Gemtuzumab (D) Rituximab


Q.10 Identify the drug which is NOT used in the treatment of malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum :
(A.) Artemisinin (B) Primaquine (C) Quinine (D) Mefloquine
Ans. B


Q.ll Which one of the following drugs does NOT act through G-Protein coupled receptors?
(A) Epinephrine (B) Insulin (C) Dopamine (D) TSH
Ans. B


Q.12 Which one of the following drugs is most effective in preventing transmission of HIV virus from the mother
to the foetus?
(A) Lamivudine (B) Zidovudine (C) Indinavir (D) Ribavirin
Ans. B


Q.13 Improvement of memory in Alzheimer's disease is brought about by drugs which increase transmission in
(A) cholinergic receptors (B) dopaminergic receptors
(C) GABAergic receptors (D) adrenergic receptors
Ans. A


Q.14 Which of the following non-opioid analgesics is a prodrug?
(A) Piroxicam (B) Celecoxib (C)Nabumetone (D) Ketorolac
Ans. C


Q.15 Which one of the following drugs is NOT a typical anti-psychotic agent?
(A) Chlorpromazine (B) Haloperidol
(C) Risperidone (D) Flupentixol
Ans. C


Q.16 Which one of the followings is a plasminogen activator?
(A) Tranexamic acid (B) Streptokinase
(C) Aminocaproic acid (D) None of the above
Ans. B


Q.17 Myasthenia gravis is diagnosed with improved neuromuscular function by using
(A) Donepezil (B) Edrophonium (C) Atropine (D) Pancuronium
Ans. B


Q.18 Which one of the following drugs specifically inhibits calcineurin in the activated T lymphocytes?
(A) Daclizumab (B) Prednisone (C) Sirolimus (D) Tacrolimus
Ans. D


Q.19 The chemical behaviour of morphine alkaloid is
(A) acidic (B)Basic (C) neutral (D) amphoteric
Ans. B


Q.20 At physiological pH the following compound would be MOSTLY in the
(A) cationic form (B) unionized form
(C)zwitterionic form (D) anionic form


Q.21 Which one of the followings is used as a mood stabilizer for bipolar disorder and also in certain epileptic convulsions?
(A) Phenytoin (B) Lithium
(C) Sodium valproate (D) Fluoxetine
Ans. B


Q.22 An isosteric replacement for carboxylic acid group is
(A) pyrrole (B) isoxazole (C) phenol (D) tetrazole
Ans.-D


Q.23 The given antibiotic is an example of ansamycins :
(A) Roxythromycin (B) Adriamycin (C) Aureomycin (D) Rifamycin
Ans. D


Q.24 For glyburide, all of the following metabolic reactions are logical EXCEPT
(A) O-demethylation (B) aromatic oxidation
(C) benzylic hydroxylation (D) amide hydrolysis
Ans. B


Q.25 The effects observed following systemic administration of levodopa in the treatment of Parkinsonism have been attributed to its catabolism to dopamine. Carbidopa, can markedly increase the proportion of levodopa that crosses the blood-brain barrier by
(A) increasing penetration of levodopa through BBB by complexation with it
(B) decreasing peripheral metabolism of levodopa
(C) decreasing metabolism of levodopa in the CNS
(D) decreasing clearance of levodopa from the CNS
Ans. B


Q.26 Ethambutol molecule has
(A) two chiral centers and 3 stereoisomers
( B) two chiral centers and 4 stereoisomers
(C) two chiral centers and 2 stereoisomers
(D) one chiral center and 2 stereoisomers
Ans. B


Q.27 A compound will be sensitive towards IR radiation only when one of the following properties undergo
transition on
(A) Polarizability (B) Dielectric constant
(C) Dipole moment (D) Refractivity
Ans. C


Q.28 X-ray crystallographic analysis of an optically active compound determines its
(A) Optical rotatory dispersive power (B) Absolute configuration
(C) Relative configuration (D) Optical purity


Q.29 Which one of the following statements is WRONG?
(A) A singlet or triplet state may result when one of the electrons from the HOMO is
excited to higher energy levels
(B) In an excited singlet state, the spin of the electron in the higher energy orbital is
paired with the electron in the ground state orbital
(C) Triplet excited state is more stable than the singlet excited state
(D) When the electron from the singlet excited state returns to ground state, the molecule always shows
fluorescence phenomenon
Ans. C


Q.30 Aminotransferases usually require the following for their activity :
(A) Niacinamide (B)Vitamin B12
(C) Pyridoxal phosphate (D) Thiamine
Ans. C


Q.31 Purity of water can be assessed by determining one of its following properties instrumentally :
(A) pH (B) Refractivity (C) Viscosity (D) Conductivity
Ans. D
Q.32 Which one of the following statements is WRONG?
(A) Carbon NMR is less sensitive than proton NMR
(B) 12C nucleus is not magnetically active
(C) Both 13C and *H have same spin quantum numbers
(D) The gyromagnetic ratio of *H is lesser than that of1 C
Ans.D


Q.33 In the TCA cycle, at which of the following enzyme-catalyzed steps, incorporation of elements of water into an intermediate of the cycle takes place :
(A) Citrate synthase (B) Aconitase
(C) Maleate dehydrogenase (D) Succinyl Co-A synthase
Ans. C


Q.34 Humectants added in cosmetic preparations generally act by
(A) hydrogen bond formation (B) covalent bond formation
(C) complex formation (D) the action of London forces
Ans. A


Q.35 In the mixing of thymol and menthol the following type of incompatibility occurs :
(A) Chemical incompatibility (B) Therapeutic incompatibility
(C) Physical incompatibility (D) Tolerance incompatibility
Ans. C


Q.36 Bloom strength is used to check the quality of
(A) Lactose (B) Ampoules
(C) Hardness of tablets (D)Gelatin
Ans. D


Q.37 The characteristic of non-linear pharmacokinetics include :
(A) Area under the curve is proportional to the dose
(B) Elimination half-life remains constant,
(C) Area under the curve is not proportional to the dose
(D) Amount of drug excreted through remains constant
Ans. C


Q.38 In the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and Rules, the Schedule relating to GMP is
(A) Schedule M (B) Schedule C (C) Schedule Y (D) Schedule H
Ans. A


Q.39 Thioglycolic acid-like compounds have applications in following type of cosmetic
formulations :
(A) Depilatory preparations (B) Epilatory preparations
(C) Vanishing creams (D) Skin tan preparations
Ans. A


Q.40 Which one of the following is a flocculating agent for a negatively charged drug?
(A) Aluminium chloride (B) Bentonite
(C) Tragacanth (D) Sodium biphosphate


Q.41 The healing agent used in hand creams is
(A) soft paraffin (B) urea
(C) bees wax (D) stearyl alcohol
Ans. A


Q.42 Measurement of inulin renal clearance is a measure for
(A) Effective renal blood flow (B) Renal drug excretion rate
(C) Active renal secretion (D) Glomerular filtration rate
Ans. D


Q.43 Highly branched three dimensional macromolecules with controlled structures with all bonds originating
from a central core are known as
(A) cyclodextrins (B) dextrans (C)dendrimers (D) liposomes


Q.44 Which one of the following is the commonly used bulking agent in the formulation of freeze dried low dose drug products?
(A) Sodium chloride (B) Mannitol
(C) Starch (D) HPMC


Q.45 The applicability of Noyes-Whitney equation is to describe
(A) First order kinetics (B) Zero order kinetics
(C) Mixed order kinetics (D)Dissolution rate
Ans. D


Q.46 Which filler can NOT be used for the preparation of tablets for amine containing basic drugs to avoid
discoloration of the tablets?
(A) Dicalcium phosphate (B) Microcrystalline cellulose
(C) Starch (D) Lactose
Ans. D


Q.47 The ability of human eye using illuminated area to detect a particle is limited to
(A) 0.4 micron (B) 25 micron (C) 50 micron (D) 10 micron


Q.48 What quantities of 95 % v/v and 45 % v/v alcohols are to be mixed to make 800 mL of 65 % v/v alcohol?
(A) 480 mL of 95 % and 320 mL of 45 % alcohol 4
(B) 320 mL of 95 % and 480 mL of 45 % alcohol
(C) 440 mL of 95 % and 360 mL of 45 % alcohol
(D)360 mL of 95 % and 440 mL of 45 % alcohol
Ans. B


Q.49 The role of borax in cold creams is
(A) anti-microbial agent
(B) to provide fine particles to polish skin
(C) in-situ emulsifier
(D) antioxidant
Ans. A


Q.50 Choose the right combination:
(A) Quinine', antimalarial, isoquinoline alkaloid
(B) Reserpine, -antihypertensive, indole alkaloid
(C) -Quantitative microscopy, stomatal number, myrrh
(D) Palmitic acid, salicylic acid , fatty acids
Ans. B


Q.51 Triterpenoids are active constituents of
(A) Jaborandi (B) Rhubarb
(C) Stramonium (D) Brahmi
Ans.D


Q.52 Alkaloids are NOT precipitated by
(A) Mayer's reagent (B) Dragendroff Reagent
(C) Picric acid (D) Millon's reagent
Ans. D


Q.53 Anisocytic stomata are present in
(A) Senna (B)Digitalis(C) Belladonna (D) Coca
Ans. C


Q.54 Bacopa monnieri plant belongs to the family
(A)Scrophulariacea (B) Leguminosae (C) Polygalaceae (D) Rubiaceae
Ans. A


Q.55 Tropane alkaloids are NOT present in
(A) Datura stramonium
(B) Erythroxylum coca
(C) Duboisia myoporoides
(D) Lobelia inflata
Ans. D


Q.56 Guggul lipids are obtained from
(A) Commiphora molmol
(B) Boswellia serrata
(C) Commiphora wightii
(D) Commiphora abyssinica
Ans. C


Q.57 An example of N-glycoside is
(A) Adenosine
(B) Sinigrin
(C) Rhein-8-glucoside
(D) Aloin
Ans. A


Q.58 One mg of Lycopodium spores used in quantitative microscopy contains an average of
(A) 94,000 spores (B) 92,000 spores (C) 90,000 spores (D) 91,000 spores
Ans. A


Q.59 Select the correct combination of drugs for the treatment of patients suffering from Hepatitis C :
(A) Interferon with Ribavirin (B) Interferon with Zidovudine
(C) Interferon with Stavudine (D) Interferon with Lamivudine
Ans. B


Q.60 Aliskiren acts by
(A) inhibiting the conversion of Angiotensin I to II
(B) inhibiting the release of rennin
(C) inhibiting the binding of Angiotensin II to the receptor
(D) inhibiting the action of aldosterone
Ans. B


Q.61 Digitalis toxicity is enhanced by co-administration of
(A) Potassium B) Quinidine (C) Diuretics (D) Antacids
Ans. B


Q.62 The rate limiting step in cholesterol biosynthesis is one of the followings :
(A) LDL-receptor concentration (B) VLDL secretion
(c) Mevalonic acid formation (D) Co-enzyme A formation
Ans. C


Q.63 Which one of the following drugs is withdrawn from the market due to torsade de pointes?
(A) Chlorpromazine (B) Astemizole
(C) Haloperidol (D) Domperidone
Ans. B


Q.64 Ganciclovir is mainly used for the treatment of infection caused by
(A) Cytomegalovirus (B) Candida albicans
(C) Herpes zoster virus (D) Hepatitis B virus
Ans. A


Q.65 Identify the one rational combination which has clinical benefit :
(A) Norfloxacin - Metronidazole (B) Alprazolam - Paracetamol
(C) Cisapride – Omeprazole (D)Amoxycillin - Clavulanic acid
Ans. D


Q.66 Stevens Johnson sjmdrome is the most common adverse effect associated with one of the following category of drugs :
(A) Sulphonamides (B) Macrolides
(C) Penicillins (D) Tetracyclines
Ans. A


Q.67 Amitryptyline is synthesized from the following starting material :
(A) Phthalic anhydride (B) Terephthalic acid
(C) Phthalamic acid (D) Phthalimide
Ans. B


Q.68 The common structural feature amongst the three categories of anticonvulsant drugs barbiturates,
succinimides and hydantoins is
(A) ureide (B) imidazolidinone
(C) dihydropyrimidine (D) tetrahydropyrimidine
Ans. A


Q.69 Nicotinic action of acetylcholine is blocked by the drug
(A) Atropine (B) Carvedilol
(C) Neostigmine ( D ) d-Tubocurarine
Ans. D


Q.70 Chemical nomenclature of procaine is
(A) 2-Diethylaminoethyl 4-aminobenzoate
(B) N,N-Diethyl 4-aminobenzoate
(C) 4-Aminobenzamidoethyl amine
(D) 4-Amino-2-diethylaminoethyl benzoate


Q.71 Barbiturates with substitution at the following position possess acceptable hypnotic
activity :
(A) 1,3-Disubstitution (B) 5,5-Disubstitution
(C) 1,5-Disubstitution (D) 3,3-Disubstitution
Ans. B


Q.72 Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor is
(A) Imipramine (B) Iproniazide (C) Fluoxetin (D)Naphazoline
Ans. C


Q.73 Proton pump inhibitors like omeprazole and lansoprazole contain the following ring system,
(A) Pyrimidine (B)Benzimidazole (C) Benzothiazole (D) Oxindole
Ans. B


Q.74 A metabolite obtained from Aspergillus terreus that can bind very tightly to HMG CoA reductase enzyme is
(A) Fluvastatin (B) Cerivastatin (C) Lovastatin (D) Somatostatin
Ans. C


Q.75 Cyclophosphamide as anticancer agent acts as
(A) alkylating agent before metabolism (B)alkylating agent after metabolism
(C) phosphorylating agent after metabolism (D) DNA intercalating agent
Ans. B


Q.76 Artemisinin contains the following group in its structure :
(A) an endoperoxide (B) an exoperoxide
(C) an epoxide (D) an acid hydrazide
Ans. A


Q.77 Indicate the HPLC detector that is most sensitive to change in temperature :
(A) PDA detector (B) Refractive Index detector
(C) Electrochemical detector (D) Fluorescence detector
Ans. B


Q.78 One of the following statements is NOT true :
(A) Accuracy expresses the correctness of measurement
(B) Precision represents reproducibility of measurement
(C) High degree of precision implies high degree of accuracy also
(D) High degree of accuracy implies high degree of precesion also
Ans. C


Q.79 In thiazides following substituent is essential for diuretic activity :
(A) Chloro group at position 6 (B) Methyl group at position 2
(C) Sulphamoyl group at position 7 (D) Hydrophobic group at position 3
Ans. C


Q.80 Streptomycin can NOT be given orally for treatment of tuberculosis because
(A) it gets degraded in the GIT (B) it causes severe diarrhoea
(C) it causes metallic taste in the mouth (D) it is not absorbed from the GIT
Ans. D


Q.81 In organic molecules, fluorescence seldom results from absorption of UV radiation of wavelengths lower than
(A) 350 nm (B) 200 nm (C) 300 nm (D) 250 nm
Ans. A


Q.82 Glass transition temperature is detected through
(A) X-Ray diffractometery (B) Solution calorimetery
(C) Differential scanning calorimetery (D) Thermogravimetric analysis
Ans. C


Q.83 In Gas-Liquid Chromatography, some of the samples need to be derivatized in order to increase their
(A) volatility (B) solubility
(C)thermal conductivity (D) polarizability
Ans. D


Q.84 Oxidative phosphorylation involves
(A) Electron transport system
(B) Substrate level phosphorylation
(C) Reaction catalyzed by succinic thiokinase in TCA cycle
(D) None of the above
Ans. A


Q.85 Coulter counter is used in determination of
(A) particle surface area (B) particle size
(C) particle volume (D)all of A, B, C
Ans. D


Q.86 Drugs following one compartment open model pharmacokinetics eliminate
(A) bi-exponentially (B) tri-exponentially
(C) non-exponentially (D) mono-exponentially
Ans. D


Q.87 The temperature condition for storage of drug products under cold temperature is given as :
(A) temperature between 8°C and 25°C (B) temperature below 20C
(C) temperature at 0°C (D) temperature between 2cC and S:C
Ans. D


Q.88 Many xenobiotics are oxidized by cytochrome P450 in order to
(A) increase their biological activity
(B) increase their disposition in lipophilic compartments of the body
(C) increase their aqueous solubility
(D) all of the above
Ans. D


Q.89 The following protein / polypeptide has a quaternary structure :
(A) cc-Chymotrypsin (B) Hemoglobin
(C) Insulin (D) Myoglobin
Ans.B


Q.90 Drugs in suspensions and semi-solid formulations always degrade by
(A) first order kinetics (B)second order kinetics
(C) zero order kinetics (D) non-linear kinetics


Q.91 In nail polish, following polymer is used as a film-former,
(A) Nitrocellulose (B) Polylactic acid
(C) Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose (D) Cellulose acetate phthalate
Ans. A


Q.92 Rabies vaccine (living) is prepared using
(A) Sheep blood (B) Mice lymph
(C) Horse plasma (D) Fertile eggs


Q.93 A drug (200 mg dose) administered in tablet form and as intravenous injection (50 mg dose) showed AUG of 100 and 200 microgram hr/mL, respectively. The absolute availability of the drug through oral administration is,
(A) 125% (B) 250 % (C) 12.5% (D) 1.25%
Ans.C


Q.94 Geriatric population should be included in the following Phase of clinical trials
(A) Phase I (B) Phase II (C) Phase III (D) Phase IV
Ans. C


Q.95 Class 100 area is referred to
(A) Manufacturing area (B) Aseptic area
(C) Clean room (D) Ware house
Ans. B


Q.96 How many mL of a 1:500 w/v stock solution should be used to make 5 liters of 1:2000 w/v solution?
(A) 750 mL (B) 1000 mL (c) 1250 mL (D) 1500 mL
Ans. C


Q.97 The Volume of distribution of a drug administered at a dose of 300 mg and exhibiting 30 microgram/mL
instantaneous concentration in plasma shall be
(A)10 L (B) 100 L (C) 1.0 L (D) 0.10 L
Ans. A


Q.98 It is required to maintain a therapeutic concentration of 10 microgram/mL for 12 hours of a drug having half life of 1.386 hr and Vd of 5 L. The dose required in a sustained release product will be
(A) 600 mg (B) 300 mg 30 mg (D) 60 mg


Q.99 Which one of the following is NOT an ex-officio member of Pharmacy Council of India?
(A) The Director General of Health Services
(B) The Director of Central Drugs Laboratory
(C) The Drugs Controller General of India
(D) The Director of Pharmacopoeia Laboratory
Ans. D


Q.100 In which of the following techniques the sample is kept below triple point?
(A) Lyophilization (B) Spray drying
(C) Spray congealing (D) Centrifugation
Ans. A

GPAT Entrance Books

IES Mechanical Engineering 2011 Solved Question Paper

IES Mechanical Engineering 2011 Solved Question Paper

IES Mechanical Engineering 2011 Solved Question Paper-I

01. Which one of the following represents open thermodynamic system?
     (A) Manual ice cream freezer (B) Centrifugal pump
     (C) Pressure cooker (D) Bomb calorimeter
Ans: (b)


02. A thermodynamic system is considered to be an isolated one if
     (A) Mains transfer and entropy change are zero
     (B) Entropy change and energy transfer are zero
     (C) Energy transfer and mass transfer are zero
     (D) Mass transfer and volume change are zero
Ans: (c)


03. Reduced pressure is
     (A) Always less than atmospheric pressure  (B) Always unity
     (C) An index of molecular position of a gas  (D) Dimensionless
Ans: (d)


04. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the
lists:
           List I List II
       A. n = ∞
       B. n = 1.4                                
       C. n = 1.0
       D. n = 0
    Code : A B C D
   (a) 4 3 2 1
   (b) 1 3 2 4
   (c) 4 2 3 1
   (d) 1 2 3 4
Ans: (a)


06. A closed system is one in which
    (A) Mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
    (B) Mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
    (C) Neither mass nor energy cross the boundary of the system
    (D) Both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
Ans: (a)


07. Work transfer between the system and the surroundings
     (A) Is a point function (B) Is always given by ∫ P dv
     (C) Is a function of pressure only (D) Depends on the path followed by the system
Ans: (d)


08. Air is being forced by the bicycle pump into a tyre against a pressure of 4-5 bars. A slow
downward movement of the piston can be approximated as
     (A) Isobaric process
     (B) Adiabatic process
     (C) Throttling process
(D) Isothermal process
Ans: (d)


09. Isentropic flow is
     (A) Irreversible adiabatic flow (B) Reversible adiabatic flow
     (C) Ideal fluid flow  (D) Frictionless reversible flow
Ans: (b)


10. Increase in entropy of a system represents
     (A) Increase in availability of energy (B) Increase in temperature
     (C) Decrease in pressure (D) Degradation of energy
Ans: (d)


12. Lowest COP is of vapour
     (A) Compression cycle with superheated vapour
     (B) Compression cycle with dry compression
     (C) Compression cycle with wet compression
     (D) Absorption cycle
Ans: (d)
     
13. The cycle in which heat is supplied at constant volume and rejected at constant pressure is
   known as
     (A) Dual combustion cycle (B) Diesel cycle
     (C) Atkinson cycle (D) Rankine cycle
Ans: (c)


14. The boundary layer separation occurs when
     (A) Pressure gradient is positive (B) Pressure gradient is zero
     (C) Pressure gradient is negative (D) none of the above
Ans: (a)


15. For minimum work input in a two-stage compression process the intermediate pressure is the
      (A) Arithmetic mean of suction and discharge pressures
      (B) Logarithmic means of suction and discharge pressures
      (C) Geometric mean of suction and discharge pressures
      (D) Hyperbolic mean of suction and discharge pressures
Ans: (c)


16. Air injection is IC engine refers to injection of
     (A) Air only     (B) Liquid fuel only      (C) liquid fuel and air (D) Supercharging air
Ans: (b)


17. Supercharging is the process of
     (A) Supplying the intake of an engine with air at a density greater than the density of the surrounding atmosphere
     (B) Providing forced cooling air
     (C) Injection of compressed air to remove combustion products fully
     (D) Raising exhaust pressure
Ans: (a)


18. Turbo prop-engine has the following additional feature over the turbojet :
     (A) Propeller (B) Diffuser
     (C) Starting engine (D) Turbine and combustion chamber
Ans: (a)


19. In the SI engine, highest UBHC concentration is observed during
     (A) Maximum load (B) Acceleration (C) Deceleration (D) Idling
Ans: (d)


21. Pistons of Diesel engines are usually cooled by
     (A) Air  (B) Water (C) Lubricating all  (D) Fuel oil
Ans: (a)


22. When a hydrocarbon fuel burns in excess air Orsat analysis of products of combustion will show
      (A) CO, CO2 and N2 (B) CO2, CO, N2 and H2O
      (C) CO2, N2, O2 and H2O (D) CO2, N2 and O2
Ans: (d)


23. What will be the products of combustion shown by an Orsat analyzer when natural gas burns in deficit air ?
     (A) CO2, O2 and N2 (B) CO2, CO, and N2
      (C) CO2, CO, N2 and H2O (D) CO2, CO, N2 and O2
Ans: (b)


24. The energy produced by 4-5 tons of high grade coal is equivalent to the energy produced by
     (A) 1 kg of Uranium (B) 1 gram of Uranium
     (C) 100 grams of Uranium (D) 10 grams of Uranium
Ans: (b)